IIBM – Project Management Answer sheet
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Questions:
Multiple Choices: Total Marks: 100
Q1. A ________________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
- a) Program
- b) Process
- c) Project
- d) Portfolio
Q2. Which of the following is not a potential advantage of using good project management?
- a) Shorter development times
- b) Higher worker morale
- c) Lower cost of capital
- d) Higher profit margins
Q3. Which of the following is not an attribute of a project?
- a) Projects are unique
- b) Projects are developed using progressive elaboration
- c) Projects have a primary customer or sponsor
- d) Projects involve little uncertainty
Q4. Which of the following is not part of the triple constraint of project management?
- a) Meeting scope goals
- b) Meeting time goals
- c) Meeting communications goals
- d) Meeting cost goals
Q5. The first stage of any project is
- a) Proposal
- b) Conceptualization
- c) Implementation
- d) Management
Q6. __________________ is the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements.
- a) Project management
- b) Program management
- c) Project portfolio management
- d) Requirements management
Q7. Project portfolio management addresses ____________________ goals of an organization, while project management addresses _________________ goals.
- a) Strategic, tactical
- b) Tactical, strategic
- c) Internal, external
- d) External, internal
Q8. Several application development projects done for the same functional group might best be managed as part of a
- a) Portfolio
- b) Program
- c) Investment
- d) Collaborative
Q9. Which of the following is not one of the top ten skills or competencies of an effective project manager?
- a) People skills
- b) Leadership
- c) Integrity
- d) Technical skills
Q10. What is the certification program that the Project Management Institute provides?
- a) Microsoft Certified Project Manager (MCPM)
- b) Project Manager Professional (PMP)
- c) Project Management Expert (PME)
- d) Project Management Mentor (PMM)
Q11. A _________________ is a series of actions directed towards a particular result.
- a) Goal
- b) Process
- c) Plan
- d) Project
Q12. ____________________ Processes include coordinating people and other resources to carry out the project plans and produce the products, services, or results of the project or phase.
- a) Initiating
- b) Planning
- c) Executing
- d) Monitoring & controlling
Q13. Which process group normally requires the most resources and time?
- a) Initiating
- b) Planning
- c) Executing
- d) Monitoring and controlling
Q14. A work breakdown structure, project schedule, and cost estimates are outputs of the process.
- a) Initiating
- b) Planning
- c) Executing
- d) Monitoring and controlling
Q15. Which process group includes activities from each of the nine knowledge areas?
- a) Initiating
- b) Planning
- c) Executing
- d) Monitoring and controlling
Q16. Project management as a profession is almost unique in having institutions concerned with its development that promote what they term their
- a) Body of language
- b) Body of knowledge
- c) Strategy
- d) Work
Q17. Initiating involves developing a project charter and preliminary project scope statement, which are part of the project _____________________ management knowledge.
- a) Integration
- b) Scope
- c) Communications
- d) Risk
Q18. A ________________ describes how things should be done, and different organizations often have different ways of doing things.
- a) Regulation
- b) Process
- c) Standard
- d) Methodology
Q19. ___________________ involves measuring progress toward project objectives and taking corrective actions.
- a) Initiating
- b) Planning
- c) Executing
- d) Monitoring and controlling
Q20. What type of report do project teams create to reflect on what went right with the project?
- a) Lessons – learned report
- b) Status report
- c) Final project report
- d) Business case
Q21. A project manager is responsible for
- a) Overseeing change
- b) Cross-functional activities
- c) Ever-changing set of tasks
- d) All above
Q22. Many people use ________________ to have a standard format for preparing various project management documents.
- a) Methodologies
- b) Templates
- c) Project management software
- d) Standards
Q23. What is the last step in the four–stage planning process for selecting information technology projects?
- a) Information technology strategy planning
- b) Business area analysis
- c) Project planning
- d) Resource allocation
Q24. A new government law requires an organization to report data in a new way. Under which category would a new information system project to provide this data fall?
- a) Problem
- b) Opportunity
- c) Directive
- d) Regulation
Q25. A __________________ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and provides direction on the project’s objectives and management.
- a) Project charter
- b) Preliminary scope statement
- c) Business case
- d) Project management plan
Q26. The ICOM model, which is one of the major roles of a project manager, stands for
- a) Integrated Constraint of Mechanism
- b) Inputs, Outputs, Constraints & Mechanism
- c) Inputs, Outputs, Constraints & Money
- d) None
Q27. A _______________ often includes sensitive information, so it should not be part of the overall project plan for anyone to see.
- a) Business case
- b) Project charter
- c) Personnel chart
- d) Stakeholder analysis
Q28. Which of the following is not a suggestion for performing integrated change control?
- a) Use good configuration management
- b) Minimize change
- c) Establish a formal change control system
- d) View project management as a process of constant communication and negotiation
Q29. _______________ refer(s) to all the work involved in creating the products of the projects and processes used to create them.
- a) Deliverables
- b) Milestones
- c) Scope
- d) Product development
Q30. Assume you have a project with major categories called planning, analysis, design, and testing. What level of the WBS would these items fall under?
- a) 0
- b) 1
- c) 2
- d) 3
Q31. Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems on information technology projects?
- a) Keep the scope realistic
- b) Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible
- c) Follow good project management processes
- d) Don’t involve too many users in scope management
Q32. Having ascertained the portfolio of projects obtained objectives for each of them, we have to move to the next stage of the strategy process to balance the objectives
- a) Policy Deployment
- b) Strategy matrix
- c) Project performance measurement
- d) None
Q33. What major restaurant chain terminated a large project after spending $170 million on it, primarily because they realized the project scope was too much to handle?
- a) Burger King
- b) Pizza Hut
- c) McDonalds
- d) Taco Bell
Q34. Scope ____________________ is often achieved by a customer inspection and then a sign–off on key deliverables.
- a) Verification
- b) Validation
- c) Completion
- d) Closeout
Q35. Project management software helps you develop a _________________, which serves as a basis for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating costs.
- a) Project plan
- b) Schedule
- c) WBS
- d) Deliverable
Q36. WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) is also known as
- a) Chunking
- b) Unbundling
- c) Both (a) & (b)
- d) None
Q37. What is the first process in planning a project schedule?
- a) Milestone definition
- b) Activity definition
- c) Activity resource estimation
- d) Activity sequencing
Q38. Predecessors, successes, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints, imposed dates, and assumptions are all examples of ___________________.
- a) Items in an activity list
- b) Items on a Gantt chart
- c) Milestone attributes
- d) Activity attributes
Q39. As the project manager for a software development project, you are helping to develop its schedule. You decide that writing code for a system cannot start until sign off on the analysis work. What type of dependency is this?
- a) Technical
- b) Mandatory
- c) Discretionary
- d) External
Q40. You cannot start editing a technical report until someone else completes the first draft. What type of dependency does this represent?
- a) Finish – to – start
- b) Start–to–start
- c) Finish–to–finish
- d) Start–to–finish
Q41. …………………. Involves going through the cycle several times to test the effects of the changes make on the outcomes.
- a) Planning
- b) Strategy
- c) Iterative
- d) None
Q42. The Above figure shows two activities A & B; B cannot start until A finished and the times for A & B are 5 and 7 days respectively. This logic is known as
- a) Dependency
- b) Precedence
- c) Freedom
- d) None
Q43. In the above figure calculate the EET (earliest event time) at 20.
- a) 10
- b) 20
- c) 5
- d) 25
- e) 10
- f) 0
- g) 20
- h) 0
- i) A
- j) 5Days
- k) 12
- l) 3
- m) A B
- n) 5Days 7Days
Q44. What symbol on a Gantt chart represents a slipped milestone?
- a) A black arrow
- b) A white arrow
- c) A black diamond
- d) A white diamond
Q45. What type of diagram shows planned and actual project schedule information?
- a) A network
- b) A Gantt chart
- c) A Tracking
- d) A milestone chart
Q46. ____________________ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.
- a) PERT
- b) A Gantt chart
- c) Critical path method
- d) Crashing
Q47. Which of the following statements is false?
- a) “Growing grass” was on the critical path for a large theme park project.
- b) The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a project can be completed.
- c) A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and early finish dates for each activity.
- d) Fast tracking is a technique for marking cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain
the greatest amount of schedule comparison for the least incremental cost.
Q48. _____________________ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date.
- a) Parkinson’s Law
- b) Murphy’s Law
- c) Critical path analysis
- d) Critical chain scheduling
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Q49. _______________ is a resource sacrificed or foregone to achieve a specific objective or something given up in exchange.
- a) Money
- b) Liability
- c) Trade
- d) Cost
Q50. What is the main goal of project cost management?
- a) To complete a project for as little cost as possible
- b) To complete a project within an approved budget
- c) To provide truthful and accurate cost information on projects
- d) To ensure that an organization’s money is used wisely
Q51. A fundamental of the ‘Theory of Constraints’ (TOC) is to manage systems by focusing on the constraints, termed as
- a) Watermark
- b) Bottleneck
- c) Tick-sheet
- d) None
Q52. “An activity will expand to fill the time available”; it is
- a) Newton’s Law
- b) Parkinson’s Law
- c) Einstein’s Law
- d) None
Q53. Which of the following is not a key output of project cost management?
- a) A cost estimate
- b) A cost management plan
- c) Updates to the cost management plan
- d) A cost baseline
Q54. If a company loses $5 for every $100 in revenue for a certain product, what is the profit margin for that product?
- a) -5 percent
- b) 5 percent
- c) -$5
- d) $5
Q55. __________________ reserves allow for unpredictable future situations.
- a) Contingency
- b) Financial
- c) Management
- d) Baseline
Q56. You are preparing a cost estimate for a building based on its location, purpose, number of square feet, and other characteristics. What cost-estimating technique are you using?
- a) Parametric
- b) Analogous
- c) Bottom-up
- d) Top-down
Q57. ______________ involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over time.
- a) Reserve analysis
- b) Life cycle costing
- c) Project cost budgeting
- d) Earned value analysis
Q58. _________________ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope time, and cost data.
- a) Reserve analysis
- b) Life cycle costing
- c) Project cost budgeting
- d) Earned value analysis
Q59. If the actual cost for a WBS item is $1500 and its earned value is $2000, what is its cost variance, and is it under or over budget?
- a) The cost variance is -$500, which is over budget
- b) The cost variance is -$500, which is under budget
- c) The cost variance is $500, which is over budget
- d) The cost variance is $500, which is under budget
Q60. If a project is halfway completed its schedule performance index is 110% and its cost performance index is 95%, how is it progressing?
- a) It is ahead of schedule and under budget
- b) It is ahead of schedule and over budget
- c) It is behind schedule and under budget
- d) It is behind schedule and over budget
Q61. To determine the cost of a particular element in advance of the project, which technique can be employed?
- a) Parametric estimating
- b) As…………but…………s
- c) Forecasts
- d) All above
Q62. _______________ is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.
- a) Quality
- b) Conformance to requirements
- c) Fitness for use
- d) Reliability
Q63. What is the purpose of project quality management?
- a) To produce the highest quality products and services possible
- b) To ensure that appropriate quality standards are met
- c) To ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken
- d) All of the above
Q64. _______________ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the performing organization.
- a) Quality audits
- b) Design of experiments
- c) Six Sigma
- d) Benchmarking
Q65. What tool could you use to determine whether a process is in control or out of control?
- a) A cause–and–effect diagram
- b) A control chart
- c) A run chart
- d) A scatter chart
Q66. The complication to the critical path represents the formation of a compound series of activities often involving different paths which have been termed
- a) The critical chain
- b) The critical path
- c) TOC
- d) Resource path
Q67. Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ________________ defects, errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.
- a) 6
- b) 9
- c) 3.4
- d) 1
Q68. The seven-run rule states that if seven data points in a row on a control chart are all below the mean, above the means, or all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for _________________ problems.
- a) Random
- b) Non–random
- c) Six Sigma
- d) Quality
Q69. What is the preferred order for performing testing on information technology projects?
- a) Unit testing, integration testing, system testing, user acceptance testing
- b) Unit testing, system testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing
- c) Unit testing, system testing, user acceptance testing, integration testing
- d) Unit testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing, system testing
Q70. ___________________ is known for his work on quality control in Japan and developed the 14 points for Management in his text Out of the Crisis.
- a) Juran
- b) Deming
- c) Crosby
- d) Ishikawa
Q71. The theory of constraints (TOC) is successfully applied in
- a) Planning
- b) Checking
- c) Manufacturing
- d) Controlling
Q72. PMI’s OPM3 is an example of a ____________________ model or framework for helping organization improve their processes and systems.
- a) Benchmarking
- b) Six Sigma
- c) Maturity
- d) Quality
Q73. Which of the following is not part of project human resource management?
- a) Resource estimating
- b) Acquiring the project team
- c) Developing the project team
- d) Managing the project team
Q74. _________________ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
- a) Intrinsic motivation
- b) Extrinsic motivation
- c) Self-motivation
- d) Social motivation
Q75. At the bottom of Maslow’s pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _____________ needs.
- a) Self – actualization
- b) Esteem
- c) Safety
- d) Physiological
Q76. ________________ power is based on a person’s charisma.
- a) Affiliation
- b) Referent
- c) Personality
- d) Legitimate
Q77. What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks?
- a) Resource loading
- b) Resource leveling
- c) Critical path analysis
- d) Over allocation
Q78. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for managing a project team?
- a) Observation and conversation
- b) Project performance appraisals
- c) Issue logs
- d) Social Styles Profile
Q79. What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project?
- a) Lack of proper funding
- b) A failure to communicate
- c) Poor listening skills
- d) Inadequate staffing
Q80. Which communication skill is most important for information technology professionals for career advancement?
- a) Writing
- b) Listening
- c) Speaking
- d) Using communication technologies
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Q81. Which of the following is not a process in project communication management?
- a) Information planning
- b) Information distribution
- c) Performance reporting
- d) Managing stakeholders
Q82. A building may not be constructed unless planning permission for it has been obtained, this is the
- a) Legal constraint
- b) Quality constraint
- c) Cost constraint
- d) Logic constraint
Q83. A ________________ report describes where the project stands at a specific point in time.
- a) Status
- b) Performance
- c) Forecast
- d) Earned value
Q84. __________________ is an uncertainly that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting project objectives.
- a) Risk utility
- b) Risk tolerance
- c) Risk management
- d) Risk
Q85. A person who is a risk – ______________ receives greater satisfaction when more payoffs is at stake and is willing to pay a penalty to take risks.
- a) Averse
- b) Seeking
- c) Neutral
- d) Aware
Q86. Which risk management process involves prioritizing based on their probability and impact of occurrence?
- a) Risk management planning
- b) Risk identification
- c) Qualitative risk analysis
- d) Quantitative risk analysis
Q87. The 7-S framework of project management issues was promoted by
- a) McJonald and Co.
- b) McKinsly and Co.
- c) J & K Co.
- d) None
Q88. Your project involves using a new release of a software application, but if that release is not available, your team has ______________ plans to use the current release.
- a) Contingency
- b) Fallback
- c) Reserve
- d) Mitigation
Q89. A risk _________________ is a document that contains the results of various risk management processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.
- a) Management Plan
- b) Register
- c) Breakdown structure
- d) Probability/impact matrix
Q90. Your project team has decided not to use an upcoming release of software because it might cause your schedule to slip. Which negative risk response strategy are you using?
- a) Avoidance
- b) Acceptance
- c) Transference
- d) Mitigation
Q91. For noncritical activities, network diagrams build in …………………………. at the start of activities.
- a) Temporary
- b) Buffer
- c) Slack
- d) Anywhere
Q92. If a project is being undertaken by a particular project team, then these are referred as
- a) Resource Capability
- b) Resource Capacity
- c) Resource calendar
- d) Resource pool
Q93. The term ‘hedgehog syndrome’ means
- a) Management problem
- b) Solving the problem
- c) Repetition of problem
- d) Find out a problem
Q94. What is the first procurement process?
- a) Planning contracting
- b) Planning purchasing and acquisitions
- c) Requesting seller responses
- d) Procurement management planning
Q95. The _____________ is the point at which the contractor assumes total responsibility for each additional dollar of contract cost.
- a) A breakeven point
- b) Share ratio point
- c) Point of reconciliation
- d) Point of total assumption
Q96. We’re standing on this hill here. We want to be on that hill over there, this is
- a) View
- b) Vision
- c) Mission
- d) Aim
Q97. A ______________________ is a document prepared by a seller when there are different approaches for meeting buyer needs.
- a) RFP
- b) RFQ
- c) Proposal
- d) Quote
Q98. Buyers often prepare a ______________________ list when selecting a seller to make this process more manageable.
- a) Preferred
- b) Short
- c) Qualified suppliers
- d) BAFO
Q99. A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of a(n) ______________________.
- a) RFP
- b) NPV analysis
- c) Earned value analysis
- d) Weighted scoring model
Q100. __________________ is a term used to describe various procurement functions that are now done electronically.
- a) E-procurement
- b) eBay
- c) E-commerce
- d) EMV
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