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IIBM – Total Quality Management Answer sheet

IIBM – Total Quality Management Answer sheet



Q1. In Total Quality Management, what does the ‘Quality’ word mean?

  1. a) Degree of excellence in a product or service
  1. b) Degree of performance
  1. c) Degree of work`
  1. d) Strength of the company

Q2. Quality can be quantified as :

  1. a) Q = P % E
  1. b) Q = P / E
  1. c) Q = P * E
  1. d) None Where P = Performance, and E = Expectations

Q3. What could be the dimension of Quality?

  1. a) Conformance
  1. b) Durability
  1. c) Aesthetics
  1. d) All above

Q4. An effective TQM program is often referred to as :

  1. a) Listening to the voice of consumers
  1. b) Listening to the voice of customers
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q5. The most important consideration of an effective TQM is

  1. a) Maximize profit
  1. b) Provide high quality
  1. c) Customer satisfaction
  1. d) Minimize expenses

Q6. Who said this, “Even if you’re on the right track, you’ll get run over if you just sit there.”a) Will Rogers

  1. b) Shewhart
  1. c) Joseph M. Juran
  1. d) Phillip B. Crosby

Q7. “……………….” is we, not me; mission, not my show; vision, not division; and community, Not domicile.”

  1. a) Democracy
  1. b) Membership
  1. c) Management
  1. d) Leadership

Q8. Knowledge is what to do; the desire is the motivation or wants to do; and the skill is the…..

  1. a) When to do?
  1. b) How to do?
  1. c) What to do
  1. d) None

Q9. A body of principles or standards of human conduct that govern the behavior of individuals & organizations.

  1. a) Synergy
  1. b) Ethics
  1. c) Conduct
  1. d) Nature

Q10. Quality is judged by

  1. a) Manager
  1. b) Director
  1. c) Government
  1. d) Customers

Q11. A desired future stage of an organization is

  1. a) Policies
  1. b) Mission
  1. c) Value
  1. d) Vision

Q12. A customer could be

  1. a) Internal
  1. b) External
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q13. A particular tool for obtaining opinions & perceptions about organizations products & services.

  1. a) Customer questionnaire
  1. b) Personal interview
  1. c) Telephonic interview
  1. d) All above

Q14. Clients are the people for whom the company doing the survey, and customers are the ones

  1. a) Who checks the product or services
  1. b) Who uses the product or services
  1. c) Who takes the information about the product
  1. d) None

Q15. 90% of all customer contact comes through an organization’s

  1. a) Front–line employees
  1. b) Back–line employees
  1. c) Manager
  1. d) Director

Q16. The connection between customer satisfaction and the bottom line is

  1. a) Customer interest
  1. b) Customer retention
  1. c) Customer requirement
  1. d) None

Q17. A useful tool that provides information to improve processes and establish realistic goals

  1. a) SERVQUAL
  1. b) Quality function deployment
  1. c) Gap analysis
  1. d) None

Q18. Who said, “Customer don’t buy products, they buy result.”

  1. a) Joseph J. Juran
  1. b) Phillip B. Crosby
  1. c) Peter Drucker
  1. d) Will Rogers

Q19. A document that defines the team’s mission, boundaries, the background of the problem, team’s authority, duties and resources.

  1. a) Sponsor
  1. b) Team charter
  1. c) Team manager
  1. d) Team leader

Q20. When one person proposes a decision and another agrees, we have the

  1. a) Non-decision
  1. b) Minority rule decision
  1. c) Unilateral decision
  1. d) Handclasp decision


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Q21. Item that includes a process, such as brainstorming, affinity diagram, discussion, the presenters and times guidelines is

  1. a) Company’s logo
  1. b) Company’s Name
  1. c) An agenda
  1. d) Moto

Q22. The most difficult stage as members start to realize the amount of works that lies ahead is

  1. a) Forming
  1. b) Worming
  1. c) Performing
  1. d) Storming

Q23. The S.T.A.R. = ‘Suggestions’, ‘Team’, ‘Actions’, ‘…………..’.

  1. a) Response
  1. b) Reliability
  1. c) Results
  1. d) None

Q24. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive world is

  1. a) Change
  1. b) Repair
  1. c) Revenue
  1. d) None

Q25. The planning component of process involvement begins with

  1. a) Internal customers
  1. b) External customers
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q26. Which problem occurs, when a structured system having standardized inputs, processes, and outputs is performing unacceptably from the user’s viewpoint?

  1. a) Unstructured problems
  1. b) Product design problems
  1. c) Compliance problems
  1. d) Process design problems

Q27. PDSA stands for

  1. a) Plan – Do – Study – Act
  1. b) Process Development Structured Analysis
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q28. Kaizen improvement focuses on which principle to produce only the units in the right quantities, at the right time, and with the right resources.

  1. a) Do–it–fast
  1. b) Just–in–time
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q29. The Greek symbol for the statistical measurement of dispersion called standard deviation

  1. a) α
  1. b) β
  1. c) λ
  1. d) σ

Q30. Competency levels of Six Sigma individuals use the Karate designations of

  1. a) Green Belt
  1. b) Black Belt
  1. c) Master Black Belt
  1. d) All above

Q31. The key element to a partnering relationship is

  1. a) Long–term commitment
  1. b) Trust
  1. c) Shared vision
  1. d) All above

Q32. Sourcing, which is the use of two or more suppliers for an item is

  1. a) Sole sourcing
  1. b) Multiple sourcing
  1. c) Single sourcing
  1. d) None

Q33. The fourth and final phase, i.e., the identity check occurs

  1. a) When the customers perform identity checks
  1. b) When the suppliers perform identity checks
  1. c) When both the customers & suppliers perform identity checks
  1. d) None

Q34. A supplier rating system is based on

  1. a) Quality
  1. b) Delivery
  1. c) Service
  1. d) All above

Q35. The score of a supplier can be calculated as

  1. a) Performance matrix * price index
  1. b) Target price * actual price
  1. c) Performance matrix * actual price
  1. d) None

Q36. OEMs must maintain supply chain development through

  1. a) Zero defects
  1. b) 100 % on-time delivery
  1. c) A process for continuous improvement
  1. d) All above

Q37. A technique of ‘Performing Measure Presentation’ benchmarks the process & shows favorable & unfavorable trends in the measure

  1. a) Control chart
  1. b) Time service graph
  1. c) Capability index
  1. d) Cost of poor quality

Q38. Costs can generally be considered the cost incurred for the inspection and/or test of purchased suppliers or services to determine acceptability for use.

  1. a) Operations appraisal costs
  1. b) External appraisal costs
  1. c) Miscellaneous quality evaluations
  1. d) Purchasing appraisal costs

Q39. Purchasing failure costs are incurred due to

  1. a) Defected item rejects
  1. b) Purchased item rejects
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q40. The efficiency of a business is measured in terms of

  1. a) Rupees
  1. b) Paisa
  1. c) Dollars
  1. d) Pound


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Q41. An annual award to recognize U.S. organizations for performance excellence

  1. a) Golden Peacock Award
  1. b) IMC Ramakrishna Bajaj National Award
  1. c) Malcolm Baldrige National Award
  1. d) None

Q42. In the implementation of a quality cost program, to determine if the program can be beneficial to the organization is

  1. a) Last step
  1. b) First step
  1. c) Second step
  1. d) None

Q43. An increasingly popular tool, used extensively by both manufacturing & service organizations, including Xerox, AT&T, Motorola, Ford & Toyota to reach at a target point

  1. a) SERQUAL
  1. b) Benchmarking
  1. c) QFD
  1. d) QC

Q44. When deciding what to benchmark, it is best to begin by thinking about the

  1. a) Mission and vision
  1. b) Vision and critical success factors
  1. c) Vision
  1. d) Mission and critical success factors

Q45. Benchmarking can be

  1. a) Internal
  1. b) Competitive
  1. c) Process
  1. d) All above

Q46. The technique of conducting original research is

  1. a) Questionnaires
  1. b) Site visits
  1. c) Focus on groups
  1. d) All above

Q47. Benchmarking is a waste of time, if

  1. a) Change does not occur as a result
  1. b) Change occurs as a result
  1. c) There is no achievement
  1. d) Can’t say

Q48. E – E-learning is offered in a variety of formats such as

  1. a) CD – ROM based
  1. b) LAN based
  1. c) Web-based
  1. d) All above

Q49. The International Organization for Standardizations (ISO) was founded in Geneva, Switzerland, in

  1. a) 1952
  1. b) 1948
  1. c) 1961
  1. d) 1946

Q50. The current quality system is

  1. a) AS9100
  1. b) ISO / TS 16949
  1. c) TL 9000
  1. d) All above

Q51. The supply chain is defined as

  1. a) Suppliers → Organization → Customers
  1. b) Organization → Suppliers → Customers
  1. c) Suppliers → Customers → Organization
  1. d) Organization → Customers → Suppliers

Q52. Which is not a step of ‘Implementation’ of a Quality Management System?

  1. a) Top Management Commitment
  1. b) Appoint an implementation team
  1. c) Writing the documents
  1. d) Appoint the management representatives

Q53. Technical Committee 207 (TC 207) is formed by

  1. a) RAB
  1. b) SAGE
  1. c) ASQ
  1. d) None

Q54. What is the global benefit of an environmental management system?

  1. a) Facilitate & remove trade barriers
  1. b) Improve the environmental performance of planet earth
  1. c) Build consensus
  1. d) All above

Q55. ‘Closely knit’ describes

  1. a) TNC’s eternal relationship
  1. b) TNC’s internal relationship
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q56. ………………, a golf equipment manufacturer recently certified to both ISO 9000 & ISO 14000.

  1. a) Escorts
  1. b) Hyundai
  1. c) Ping
  1. d) Tata

Q57. Ensure that EMS conforms to plans & is being properly implemented & maintained is the purpose of

  1. a) Records
  1. b) EMS Audit
  1. c) Monitoring & Measuring
  1. d) Nonconformance & Corrective

Q58. The Quality Function Deployment is used, to express information

  1. a) Algebraic values
  1. b) Numeric values
  1. c) Alphanumeric values
  1. d) None

Q59. Quality Function deployment is a planning tool used to

  1. a) Maximizing the profit
  1. b) Minimizing the expenses
  1. c) Fulfill customer expectations
  1. d) Making goodwill

Q60. Which source of customers describes their expectations?

  1. a) Voice of customers
  1. b) Actions of customers
  1. c) Nature of customers


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Q61. Which method is well-suited for gathering a large amount of data?

  1. a) Interrelationship diagram
  1. b) Tree diagrams
  1. c) Cause – and – Effect diagrams
  1. d) All above

Q62. The primary planning tool used in QFD is

  1. a) QC
  1. b) Gap Analysis
  1. c) Benchmarking
  1. d) HOQ

Q63. The absolute weight is calculated by

  1. a) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)*(sales points)
  1. b) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)
  1. c) AW = (scale up factor)*(sales points)
  1. d) None

Q64. Why the term ‘Sequential Engineering’ is used?

  1. a) To describe the profit
  1. b) To describe the process
  1. c) To describe the performance
  1. d) To describe the quality

Q65. The benefit of Quality by Design techniques is

  1. a) Faster production development
  1. b) Better quality
  1. c) Less work in progress
  1. d) All above

Q66. Tools that are mostly used in quality design technique

  1. a) CAD
  1. b) CAM
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q67. Software that provides a means for individuals to communicate their opinions within a group in a structured & creative manner is

  1. a) Enterprise resource planning software
  1. b) Product data management software
  1. c) Electronic meeting software
  1. d) None

Q68. The finite element analysis software packages are widely regarded as the most powerful tool available for

  1. a) A design engineer
  1. b) Documentation
  1. c) Production
  1. d) All above

Q69. FMEA. Is an analytical technique to identify foreseeable failure modes of a product or process & plan for their elimination stands for

  1. a) Failure Modification & Effect Analysis
  1. b) Foreign Money Exchange and Analysis
  1. c) Failure Mode & Effect Analysis
  1. d) None

Q70. The type of FMEA is

  1. a) Design FMEA
  1. b) Process FMEA
  1. c) Equipment FMEA
  1. d) All above

Q70. The type of FMEA is

  1. a) Design FMEA
  1. b) Process FMEA
  1. c) Equipment FMEA
  1. d) All above

Q71. How many stages of FMEA?

  1. a) 8
  1. b) 6
  1. c) 4
  1. d) 3

Q72. The effectiveness of failure as perceived by the customer is called

  1. a) Minor effect(s) of failure
  1. b) Potential effect(s) of failure
  1. c) High effe4ct(s) of failure
  1. d) All above

Q73. Which section of the document is a relative of the assessment of the ability of the design control to detect either a potential cause or the subsequent failure mode before the component, sub-system, or system is completed for production?

  1. a) Occurrence(O)
  1. b) Classification (CLASS)
  1. c) Detection (D)
  1. d) Security (S)

Q74. The concept of caveat Emptor’, which resulted from Adam Smith’s “invisible Hand” theory of commercial regulation, means

  1. a) Let the buyers beware
  1. b) Let the seller beware
  1. c) Let the consumer beware
  1. d) Let the government beware

Q75. The first requirement of an expert technical witness is to be ……………………… in the area of testimony.

  1. a) Non–technical
  1. b) Perfect
  1. c) Technically competent
  1. d) Knowledgeable

Q76. Technique, which is a product safety design technique is

  1. a) Fault-free analysis
  1. b) Fail–safe concepts
  1. c) Coded identifications for traceability
  1. d) All above

Q77. If the product is referred to as “safe” & a person is injured that action establishes that the product is

  1. a) Good
  1. b) Best
  1. c) Defective
  1. d) Not safe

Q78. A communication between the marketplace and the organization concerning the performance of the product is

  1. a) A complaint
  1. b) A claim
  1. c) Both (a) & (b)
  1. d) None

Q79. An adequate prevention program can substantially reduce the risk of damaging litigation. This statement is as same as the proverb

  1. a) An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure
  1. b) Barking dogs seldom bite
  1. c) Old is gold
  1. d) Two birds with a single stone

Q80. The goal of TPM is

  1. a) Maintaining & improving equipment capacity
  1. b) Maintaining equipment for life
  1. c) Encouraging input from all employees
  1. d) All above


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Q81. Operating time can be calculated as

  1. a) T = P + D
  1. b) T = D – P
  1. c) T = P – D
  1. d) T = P * D Where P = Planned operating time, D = Downtime

Q82. A tool, that could be a key to finding the root cause of a problem by focusing on the process rather than on people is

  1. a) Brainstorming
  1. b) Why Why tool
  1. c) CAM
  1. d) Tree Diagram

Q83. A tool, which is used to reduce any broad objective into increasing levels of detail in order to achieve the objective is

  1. a) Matrix Diagram
  1. b) Tree Diagram
  1. c) Brainstorming
  1. d) Why Why tool

Q84. Prioritization matrices based on weighted criteria using a combination of

  1. a) Tree & Matrix Diagram
  1. b) Tree & Affinity Diagram
  1. c) Affinity & Matrix Diagram
  1. d) Brainstorming & Why Why Tool

Q85. The tool which can be used in a wide variety of situations and is simple to use by individuals and/or teams is

  1. a) Why Why tool
  1. b) Forced Field Analysis
  1. c) Nominal Group Technique
  1. d) All above

Q86. The activity network diagram is also known as

  1. a) PERT
  1. b) CPM
  1. c) Arrow diagram
  1. d) All above

Q87. PDPC stands for

  1. a) Process Decision Program Chart
  1. b) Practice Decision Program Chart
  1. c) Process Development
  1. d) Path Decision Process Chart

Q88. A Pareto diagram is a

  1. a) Ending Process
  1. b) Critical Process
  1. c) Never Ending Process
  1. d) Easy Process

Q89. Diagrams are used to investigate either a “bad” effect and to take action to correct the cause that effect & to learn those causes that are responsible

  1. a) Pareto diagrams
  1. b) Tree diagrams
  1. c) PERT diagrams
  1. d) Cause and effect diagrams

Q90. Which is the first “statistical” SPC technique?

  1. a) Histogram
  1. b) Ungrouped Data
  1. c) Check Sheets
  1. d) None

Q91. An arrangement of raw numerical data in ascending or descending order of magnitude is

  1. a) Structure
  1. b) Link List
  1. c) Queue
  1. d) Array

Q92. Statistics is defined as the science that deals with

  1. a) Collection
  1. b) Tabulation
  1. c) Presentation
  1. d) All above

Q93. Which tool of statistics describes how the data are spread out or scattered on each side of the central value?

  1. a) Measures of dispersion
  1. b) Forced field analysis
  1. c) Nominal group technique
  1. d) Tree diagram

Q94. Experimental design can be used to

  1. a) Improve a process by increasing its performance and Eliminating troubles
  1. b) Identify the variables to control the process
  1. c) Improve an existing product or develop a new product
  1. d) All above

Q95. A statistical decision-making process in which inferences are made about the population from a sample is

  1. a) Hypothesis Testing
  1. b) Orthogonal Design
  1. c) t- reference Distribution
  1. d) None

Q96. What does the word ‘Orthogonal’ mean?

  1. a) The final product is experimented
  1. b) The design of the actual product is based
  1. c) The experimental design is balanced
  1. d) None

Q97. In any statistical study, analysis & calculations yield a single point or value, which is called a

  1. a) Point estimate
  1. b) Analytical point
  1. c) Full factor
  1. d) None

Q98. Which is a stage of product development?

  1. a) Process design
  1. b) Product design
  1. c) Production
  1. d) All above

Q99. Which is the fundamental part of the Taguchi approach?

  1. a) Iron casting
  1. b) Grill
  1. c) Parameter design
  1. d) Confirmation run

Q100. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive world is called

  1. a) Change
  1. b) Renewal
  1. c) Enhancement
  1. d) None


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