Financial Management

Part one:

Multiple choices:

1. The approach focused mainly on the financial problems of corporate enterprise
2. Ignored non-corporate enterprise
3. Ignored working capital financing
4. External approach
5. Ignored routine problems

 

2. These are those shares, which can be redeemed or repaid to the holders after a lapse of the

stipulated period

1. Cumulative preference shares
2. Non-cumulative preference shares
3. Redeemable preference shares
4. Perpetual shares

 

3. This type of risk arise from changes in environmental regulations, zoning requirements, fees,

licenses and most frequently taxes

1. Political risk
2. Domestic risk
3. International risk
4. Industry risk

 

4. It is the cost of capital that is expected to raise funds to finance a capital budget or investment

proposal

1. Future cost
2. Specific cost
3. Spot cost
4. Book cost

 

5. This concept is helpful in formulating a sound & economical capital structure for a firm
6. Financial performance appraisal
7. Investment evaluation
8. Designing optimal corporate capital structure
9. None

 

6. It is the minimum required rate of return needed to justify the use of capital
7. From investors
8. Firms point
9. Capital expenditure point
10. Cost of capital

 

7. It arises when there is a conflict of interest among owners, debenture holders and the management
8. Seasonal variation
9. Degree of competition
10. Industry life cycle
11. Agency costs
12. Some guidelines on shares & debentures issued by the government that are very important for the

constitution of the capital structure are

 

1. Legal requirement
2. Purpose of finance
3. Period of finance
4. Requirement of investors

 

9. It is that portion of an investments total risk that results from change in the financial integrity of

the investment

1. Bull- bear market risk
2. Default risk
3. International risk
4. Liquidity risk

 

10. _____________ measure the systematic risk of a security that cannot be avoided through

diversification

1. Beta
2. Gamma
3. Probability distribution
4. Alpha

 

Part Two:

1. What is Annuity kind of cash flow?
2. What do understand by Portfolio risk?
3. What do you understand by ‘Loan Amortization’?
4. What is the Difference between NPV and IRR?

 

Section B: Case lets (40 marks)

Case let 1

Question:

1. Which type of financing is appropriate to each firm?
2. What types of securities must be issued by a firm which is on the growing stage in order to meet

the financial requirements?

 

Case let 2

Question:

1. How would you judge the potential profit of Bajaj Electronics on the first year of sales to Booth

Plastics and give your views to increase the profit.

2. Suggestion regarding Credit limit. Should it be approved or not, what should be the amount of

credit limit that electronics give to Booth Plastics.

 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

1. Honey Well Company is contemplating to liberalize its collection effort. Its present sales are Rs.

10 lakh, its average collection period is 30 days, its expected variable cost to sales ratio is 85 per

cent and its bad debt ratio is 5 per cent. The Company’s cost of capital is 10 per cent and tax are

is 40 per cent. He proposed liberalization in collection effort increase sales to Rs. 12 lakh

increases average collection period by 15 days, and increases the bad debt ratio to 7 percent.

Determine the change in net profit.

 

2. Explain the concept of working capital. What are the factors which influence the working capital?

 

 

 

 

Human Resource Management

 

Part One:

Multiple choices:

1. It is a cultural attitude marked by the tendency to regard one’s own culture as superior to others
2. Geocentrism
3. Polycentrism
4. Ethnocentrism
5. Egocentrism
6. It is the systemic study of job requirements & those factors that influence the performance of

those job requirements

1. Job analysis
2. Job rotation
3. Job circulation
4. Job description
5. This Act provides an assistance for minimum statutory wages for scheduled employment
6. Payment of Wages Act, 1936
7. Minimum Wages Act, 1948
8. Factories Act, 1948
9. Payment of Gratuity act, 1972
10. __________ is the actual posting of an employee to a specific job
11. Induction
12. Placement
13. Attrition
14. None
15. Broadening an individual’s knowledge, skills & abilities for future responsibilities is known as
16. Training
17. Development
18. Education
19. Mentoring
20. Change that is designed and implemented in an orderly and timely fashion in anticipation of

future events

1. Planned change
2. Technology change
3. Structural change
4. None
5. It is a process for setting goals and monitoring progress towards achieving those goals
6. Performance appraisal
7. Performance gap
8. Performance factor
9. Performance management system
10. A method which requires the rates to provide a subjective performance evaluation along a scale

from low to high

1. Assessment centre
2. Checklist
3. Rating scale
4. Monitoring
5. It is the sum of knowledge, skills, attitudes, commitment, values and the liking of the people in an

organization

1. Human resources
2. Personal management
3. Human resource management
4. Productivity
5. A learning exercise representing a real-life situation where trainees compete with each other to

achieve specific objectives

1. Executive development
2. Management game
3. Programmed learning
4. Understudy

Part Two:

1. Explain the importance of Career Planning in industry.
2. Write the features of HRM.
3. Briefly explain the concept of Performance Appraisal.
4. Explain On-Job and Off Job Training.

 

Section B: Case lets (40 marks)

 

Questions

1. Should benching be a matter of concern at Delta?
2. What are the risks involved in moving from a project-centric mode to a mix of projects and

products?

 

Case let 2

Question

1. Discuss that technological breakthrough has brought a radical changes in HRM.

 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

1. Several types of interviews are commonly used depending on the nature & importance of the

position to be filled within an organization. Explain the different types of Interviews.

 

2. Explain the legal provisions regarding safety of workers.

 

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Managerial Economics

 

Section A: Objective Type (30 marks)

 

Multiple choices:

1. It is a study of economy as a whole
2. Macroeconomics
3. Microeconomics
4. Recession
5. Inflation
6. A comprehensive formulation which specifies the factors that influence the demand for the

product

1. Market demand
2. Demand schedule
3. Demand function
4. Income effect
5. It is computed when the data is discrete and therefore incremental changes is measurable
6. Substitution effect
7. Arc elasticity
8. Point elasticity
9. Derived demand
10. Goods & services used for final consumption is called
11. Demand
12. Consumer goods
13. Producer goods
14. Perishable goods
15. The curve at which satisfaction is equal at each point
16. Marginal utility
17. Cardinal measure of utility
18. The Indifference Curve
19. Budget line
20. Costs that are reasonably expected to be incurred in some future period or periods
21. Future costs
22. Past costs
23. Incremental costs
24. Sunk costs
25. Condition when the firm has no tendency either to increase or to contract its output
26. Monopoly
27. Profit
28. Equilibrium
29. Market
30. Total market value of all finished goods & services produced in a year by a country’s residents is

known as

1. National income
2. Gross national product
3. Gross domestic product
4. Real GDP
5. The sum of net value of goods & services produced at market prices
6. Government expenditure
7. Product approach
8. Income approach
9. Expenditure approach
10. The market value of all the final goods & services made within the borders of a nation in an year
11. Globalization
12. Subsidies
13. GDP
14. GNP

 

Part Two:

1. Define ‘Arc Elasticity’.
2. Explain the law of ‘Diminishing marginal returns’.
3. What is ‘Prisoner’s Dilemma’, of non cooperative game?
4. What is ‘Third degree Discrimation’?

 

Section B: Case lets (40 marks)

 

Case let 1

Questions

1. Plot the demand schedule and draw the demand curve for the data given for Marijuana in the case

above.

 

2. On the basis of the analysis of the case above, what is your opinion about legalizing marijuana in

Canada?

 

Case let 2

Questions

1. Is Indian companies running a risk by not giving attention to cost cutting?
2. Discuss whether Indian Consumer goods industry is growing at the cost of future profitability.
3. Discuss capital and labour productivity in engineering context and pharmaceutical industries in

India.

4. Is textile industry in India performing better than its global competitors?

 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

 

1. Free trade promotes a mutually profitable regional division of labour, greatly enhances the

potential real national product of all nations and makes possible higher standards of living all

over the globe.” Critically explain and examine the statement.

 

2. What role does a decision tree play in business decision-making? Illustrate the choice between

two investment projects with the help of a decision tree assuming hypothetical conditions about

the states of nature, probability distribution, and corresponding pay-offs.

 

 

 

 

Marketing Management

 

Part one:

Multiple choices:

1. It is a concept where goods are produced without taking into consideration the choices or tastes of

customers

1. Marketing mix
2. Production concept
3. Marketing concept
4. Relationship marketing
5. It involves individuals who buys products or services for personal use and not for manufacture or

resale

1. Environment analysis
2. Macro environment
3. Micro environment
4. Consumer
5. It is the groups of people who interact formally or informally influencing each other’s attitudes&

behavior

1. Consumer behavior
2. Culture
3. Reference groups
4. Primary groups
5. The concept of the product that passes through various changes in its total life known as
6. Product life cycle
7. Line stretching
8. Consumer adoption
9. Product
10. It refers to unique set of brand associations that brand strategist aspires to create or maintain
11. Branding
12. Packaging
13. Brand identity
14. Brand image
15. It involves a pricing strategy that charges customers different prices for the same product or

service

1. Promotional pricing
2. Price discrimination
3. Non price competition
4. None
5. It refers to an arrangement where another company through its own marketing channel sells the

products of one producers

1. End customer
2. Wholesaler
3. Retailing
4. Strategic channel alliance
5. It involves facility consisting of the means & equipments necessary for the movement of

passengers of goods

1. Logistics
2. Warehousing
3. Transportation
4. None
5. The advertising which is used to inform consumers about a new product or feature & to build

primary demands is known as

1. Advertising
2. Informative advertising
3. Persuasive advertising
4. Advertising strategy
5. An art that predicts the likelihood of economic activity on the basis of certain assumptions
6. Compensation
7. Sales forecasting
8. Sales budgeting
9. Selling policy

 

Part Two:

1. Write a note on importance of consumer behavior for a business firm?
2. Define the term ‘Price’.
3. Distinguish between Marketing Concept and Selling Concept?
4. What are the new trends in advertisement?
5. Briefly explain the following :
6. a) Socio –culture environment
7. b) Marketing environment interface.

 

Section B: Case lets (40 marks)

 

Case let 1

 

Questions

1. What are the significant factors that have led to the success of Shoppers’ Stop?
2. Draw the typical profile(s) of Shoppers’ Stop customer segments.
3. How are Indian customers visiting Shoppers’ Stop any different from customers of developed

western countries?

4. How should Shoppers’ Stop develop its demand forecasts?

 

Case let 2

Questions

1. Considering the concept of product life cycle, where would you put video games in their life

cycle?

 

2. Should video game companies continue to alter their products to include other functions, such as

e-mail?

 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

1. What is meant by sales promotion? Describe briefly the various methods of sales promotional

tools used by business organizations to boost the sales. Explain any four methods of sales

promotion?

 

2. Write notes on the fowling :
3. a) Explain right to safety.
4. b) What is right to consumer protection?

 

 

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Organizational Behavior

 

Part one:

Multiple choices:

1. It is the degree to which a person identifies with a particular organization and its goals, & wishes

to maintain membership in the organization

1. Job involvement
2. Terminal value
3. Attitude
4. Value
5. _________ means moving information from the hidden area to the open area
6. blind area
7. unknown area
8. public area
9. self disclosure
10. An approach in which the goals of one party are in direct conflict with the goals of the other party
11. Negotiation
12. Distributive bargaining
13. Stress
14. None
15. The measure of a person’s ability to operate within business organizations through social

communication & interactions

1. Transactional analysis
2. Interpersonal skill
3. Life position
4. Johari window
5. Where the source of power is in person’s control over rewarding outcomes, that power is called
6. Coercive power
7. Referent power
8. Legitimate power
9. Reward power
10. It means melting resistance to change; the people who will be affected by the change come to

accept the need for it

1. Organization
2. Unfreezing
3. Changing
4. Refreezing
5. This training is also known as laboratory training, encounter groups & T-groups
6. Sensitivity
7. Survey
8. Process
9. Team building
10. They are the things that come together to define a culture & reveal that the culture is about to

those who pay attention to them

1. Culture
2. Espoused value
3. Artifacts
4. Organizational culture
5. This stage encompasses all the learning that occurs before a new member joins the organizations
6. Socialization
7. The Pre-arrival stage
8. Encounter stage
9. Metamorphosis stage
10. It refers to the behavior pattern adopted by a leader to influence the behavior of his subordinate

for attaining the organizational goal

1. Leadership
2. Traits of leadership
3. Leadership grid
4. Leadership style

 

Part Two:

1. Define Informal groups.
2. What do you understand by the term ‘Emotion’?
3. Write a note on ‘Reinforcement theory’.
4. Explain the terms ‘Attitudes and Values’.

 

Section B: Case lets (40 marks)

Case let 1

 

Questions

1. How would you examine if there is any merit in the remarks of various functional managers?
2. What, in your opinion, could be the reasons for different Managerial thinking in this case?
3. How would you design a system of getting correct information about job status to identify delays quickly?
4. What would you suggest to promote co-ordinate interaction of various people to meet the

scheduled dates?

 

Case let 2

Questions

1. Whom do you think Rajender will eat with? Why?
2. If you were one of the other foremen, what could you do to make Rajinder’s transition easier?

 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

1. A large unit manufacturing electrical goods which has been known for its liberal personnel

policies and fringe benefits is facing the problem of low productivity and high absenteeism. How

should the management improve the organizational climate?

2. The leader is expected to play many roles & therefore he must be qualified to guide others to

organizational achievement. On the basis of this explain the leadership skills & leadership traits.

 

 

 

Principles and Practice of Management

 

Multiple Choices:

1. A plan is a trap laid to capture the ________.
2. Future
3. Past
4. Policy
5. Procedure
6. It is the function of employing suitable person for the enterprise
7. Organizing
8. Staffing
9. Directing
10. Controlling
11. ___________ means “ group of activities & employees into departments”
12. Orientation
13. Standardization
14. Process
15. Departmentation
16. This theory states that authority is the power that is accepted by others
17. Acceptance theory
18. Competence theory
19. Formal authority theory
20. Informal authority theory
21. It means dispersal of decision-making power to the lower levels of the organization
22. Decentralization
23. Centralization
24. Dispersion
25. Delegation
26. This chart is the basic document of the organizational structure
27. Functional chart
28. Posts chart
29. Master chart
30. Departmental chart
31. Communication which flow from the superiors to subordinates with the help of scalar chain is known as
32. Informal communication
33. Downward communication
34. Upward communication
35. Oral communication
36. Needs for belongingness, friendship, love, affection, attention & social acceptance are
37. Physiological needs
38. Safety needs
39. Ego needs
40. Social needs
41. A management function which ensures “jobs to be filled with the right people, with the

right knowledge, skill & attitude”

1. Staffing defined
2. Job analysis
3. Manpower planning
4. Recruitment
5. It is a process that enables a person to sort out issues and reach to a decisions affecting

their life

1. Selection
2. Raining
3. Reward
4. Counseling

 

Part Two:

1. Differentiate between ‘Administration’ and ‘Management’.
2. What were the common drawbacks in classical and Neo classical theories of management?
3. Write a short note on “Line Organization.”
4. Write a short note on ‘Acceptance theory’.

 

Section B: Case lets (40 marks)

Case let 1

Questions

1. Critically analyze Mr. Vincent’s reasoning.
2. If you were the professor and you knew what was going through Vincent’s mind, what would you

say to Vincent?

Case let 2

Questions

1. Diagnose the problem and enumerate the reasons for the failure of D’Cuhna?
2. What could D’Cuhna have done to avoid the situation in which he found himself?

 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

1. What is Training? Explain the different methods of training?
2. Explain Decision-Making process of an organization?

 

 

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Project Management

 

Multiple Choices: Total Marks: 100

1. A ________________ is a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or

result.

1. a) Program
2. b) Process
3. c) Project
4. d) Portfolio
5. Which of the following is not a potential advantage of using good project management?
6. a) Shorter development times
7. b) Higher worker morale
8. c) Lower cost of capital
9. d) Higher profit margins
10. Which of the following is not an attribute of a project?
11. a) Projects are unique
12. b) Projects are developed using progressive elaboration
13. c) Projects have a primary customer or sponsor
14. d) Projects involve little uncertainty
15. Which of the following is not part of the triple constraint of project management?
16. a) Meeting scope goals
17. b) Meeting time goals
18. c) Meeting communications goals
19. d) Meeting cost goals
20. The first stage of any project is
21. a) Proposal
22. b) Conceptualization
23. c) Implementation
24. d) Management
25. __________________ is the application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project

activities to meet project requirements.

1. a) Project management
2. b) Program management
3. c) Project portfolio management
4. d) Requirements management
5. Project portfolio management addresses ____________________ goals of an organization, while

project management addresses _________________ goals.

1. a) Strategic, tactical
2. b) Tactical, strategic
3. c) Internal, external
4. d) External, internal
5. Several application development projects done for the same functional group might best be

managed as part of a

1. a) Portfolio
2. b) Program
3. c) Investment
4. d) Collaborative
5. Which of the following is not one of the top ten skills or competencies of an effective project

manager?

1. a) People skills
2. b) Leadership
3. c) Integrity
4. d) Technical skills
5. What is the certification program called that the Project Management Institute provides?
6. a) Microsoft Certified Project Manager (MCPM)
7. b) Project Manager Professional (PMP)
8. c) Project Management Expert (PME)
9. d) Project Management Mentor (PMM)
10. A _________________ is a series of actions directed towards a particular result.
11. a) Goal
12. b) Process
13. c) Plan
14. d) Project
15. ____________________ Processes include coordinating people and other resource to carry out

the project plans and produce the products, service, or results of the project or phase.

1. a) Initiating
2. b) Planning
3. c) Executing
4. d) Monitoring & controlling
5. Which process group normally requires the most resources and time?
6. a) Initiating
7. b) Planning
8. c) Executing
9. d) Monitoring and controlling
10. A work breakdown structure, project schedule, and cost estimates are outputs of the process.
11. a) Initiating
12. b) Planning
13. c) Executing
14. d) Monitoring and controlling
15. Which process group includes activities from each of the nine knowledge areas?
16. a) Initiating
17. b) Planning
18. c) Executing
19. d) Monitoring and controlling
20. Project management as a profession is almost unique in having institutions concerned with its

development who promote what they term their

1. a) Body of language
2. b) Body of knowledge
3. c) Strategy
4. d) Work
5. Initiating involves developing a project charter and preliminary project scope statement, which

are part of the project _____________________ management knowledge.

1. a) Integration
2. b) Scope
3. c) Communications
4. d) Risk
5. A ________________ describes how things should be done, and different organizations often

have different ways of doing things.

1. a) Regulation
2. b) Process
3. c) Standard
4. d) Methodology
5. ___________________ involves measuring progress toward project objectives and talking

corrective actions.

1. a) Initiating
2. b) Planning
3. c) Executing
4. d) Monitoring and controlling
5. What type of report do project teams create to reflect on what went right with the project?
6. a) Lessons – learned report
7. b) Status report
8. c) Final project report
9. d) Business case
10. Project manager is responsible for
11. a) Overseeing change
12. b) Cross functional activities
13. c) Ever changing set of tasks
14. d) All above
15. Many people use ________________ to have a standard format for preparing various project

management documents.

1. a) Methodologies
2. b) Templates
3. c) Project management software
4. d) Standards
5. What is the last step in the four – stage planning process for selecting information technology

projects?

1. a) Information technology strategy planning
2. b) Business area analysis
3. c) Project planning
4. d) Resource allocation
5. A new government law requires an organization to report data in anew way. Under which

category would a new information system project to provide this data fall?

1. a) Problem
2. b) Opportunity
3. c) Directive
4. d) Regulation
5. A __________________ is a document that formally recognizes the existence of a project and

provides direction on the project’s objectives and management.

1. a) Project charter
2. b) Preliminary scope statement
3. c) Business case
4. d) Project management plan
5. ICOM model, which is one of the major roles of project manager, stand for
6. a) Integrated Constraint of Mechanism
7. b) Inputs, Outputs, Constraints & Mechanism
8. c) Inputs, Outputs, Constraints & Money
9. d) None
10. A _______________ often includes sensitive information, so it should not be part of the overall

project plan for anyone to see.

1. a) Business case
2. b) Project charter
3. c) Personnel chart
4. d) Stakeholder analysis
5. Which of the following is not a suggestion for performing integrated change control?
6. a) Use good configuration management
7. b) Minimize change
8. c) Establish a formal change control system
9. d) View project management as a process of constant communication and negotiation
10. _______________ refer(s) to all the work involved in creating the products of the projects and

processes used to create them.

1. a) Deliverables
2. b) Milestones
3. c) Scope
4. d) Product development
5. Assume you have a project with major categories called planning, analysis, design, and testing.

What level of the WBS would these items fall under?

1. a) 0
2. b) 1
3. c) 2
4. d) 3
5. Which of the following is not a best practice that can help in avoiding scope problems on

information technology projects?

1. a) Keep the scope realistic
2. b) Use off-the-shelf hardware and software whenever possible
3. c) Follow good project management processes
4. d) Don’t involve too many users in scope management
5. Having ascertains the portfolio of projects obtained objectives for each of them, we have to move

to the next stage of the strategy process to balance the objectives

1. a) Policy deployment
2. b) Strategy matrix
3. c) Project performance measurement
4. d) None
5. What major restaurant chain terminated a large project after spending $170 million on it,

primarily because they realized the project scope was too much to handle?

1. a) Burger King
2. b) Pizza Hut
3. c) McDonalds
4. d) Taco Bell
5. Scope ____________________ is often achieved by a customer inspection and then sign – off on

key deliverables.

1. a) Verification
2. b) Validation
3. c) Completion
4. d) Close – out
5. Project management software helps you develop a _________________, which serves as a basis

for creating Gantt charts, assigning resources, and allocating costs.

1. a) Project plan
2. b) Schedule
3. c) WBS
4. d) Deliverable
5. WBS (Work Breakdown Structure) is also known as
6. a) Chunking
7. b) Unbundling
8. c) Both (a) & (b)
9. d) None
10. What is the first process in planning a project schedule?
11. a) Milestone definition
12. b) Activity definition
13. c) Activity resource estimation
14. d) Activity sequencing
15. Predecessors, successes, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, constraints,

imposed dates, and assumptions are all examples of ___________________.

1. a) Items in an activity list
2. b) Items on a Gantt chart
3. c) Milestone attributes
4. d) Activity attributes
5. As the project manager for a software development project, you are helping to develop its

schedule. You decide that writing code for a system cannot start until sign off on the analysis

work. What type of dependency is this?

1. a) Technical
2. b) Mandatory
3. c) Discretionary
4. d) External
5. You cannot start editing a technical report until someone else completes the first draft. What type

of dependency does this represent?

1. a) Finish – to – start
2. b) Start – to – start
3. c) Finish – to – finish
4. d) Start – to – finish
5. …………………. Involves going through the cycle several times to test the effects of the changes

make on the outcomes.

1. a) Planning
2. b) Strategy
3. c) Iterative
4. d) None

42.

Above figure shows two activities A & B; B cannot start until A finished and the times for A &

B are 5 and 7 days respectively. This logic is known as

1. a) Dependency
2. b) Precedence
3. c) Freedom
4. d) None

43.

In the above figure calculate the EET (earliest event time) at 20.

1. a) 10
2. b) 20
3. c) 5
4. d) 25

10

0

20

0

A

5Days

1 2

3

A B

5Days 7Days

44. What symbol on a Gantt chart represents a slipped milestone?
45. a) A black arrow
46. b) A white arrow
47. c) A black diamond
48. d) A white diamond
49. What type of diagram shows planned and actual project schedule information?
50. a) A network
51. b) A Gantt chart
52. c) A Tracking
53. d) A milestone chart
54. ____________________ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project

duration.

1. a) PERT
2. b) A Gantt chart
3. c) Critical path method
4. d) Crashing
5. Which of the following statement is false?
6. a) “Growing grass” was on the critical path for a large theme park project.
7. b) The critical path is the series of activities that determine the earliest time by which a

project can be completed.

1. c) A forward pass through a project network diagram determines the early start and

early finish dates for each activity.

1. d) Fast tracking is a technique for marking cost and schedule trade-offs to obtain the

obtain the greatest amount of schedule comparison for the least incremental cost.

48. _____________________ is a method of scheduling that considers limited resources when

creating a project schedule and includes buffers to protect the project completion date.

1. a) Parkinson’s Law
2. b) Murphy’s Law
3. c) Critical path analysis
4. d) Critical chain scheduling
5. _______________ is a resource scarified or foregone to achieve a specific objective or something

given up in exchange.

1. a) Money
2. b) Liability
3. c) Trade
4. d) Cost
5. What is main goal of project cost management?
6. a) To complete a project for as little cost as possible
7. b) To complete a project within an approved budget
8. c) To provide truthful and accurate cost information on projects
9. d) To ensure that an organization’s money is used widely
10. A fundamental of ‘Theory of Constraints’ (TOC) is to manage systems by focusing on the

constraints, termed as

1. a) Watermark
2. b) Bottleneck
3. c) Tick-sheet
4. d) None
5. “An activity will expand to fill the time available”; it is
6. a) Newton’s Law
7. b) Parkinson’s Law
8. c) Einstein’s Law
9. d) None
10. Which of the following is not a key output of project cost management?
11. a) A cost estimate
12. b) A cost management plan
13. c) Updates to the cost management plan
14. d) A cost baseline
15. If a company loses $5 for every $100 in revenue for a certain product, what is profit margin for

that product?

1. a) -5 percent
2. b) 5 percent
3. c) -$5
4. d) $5
5. __________________ reserves allow for future situations that are unpredictable.
6. a) Contingency
7. b) Financial
8. c) Management
9. d) Baseline
10. You are preparing a cost estimate for a building based on its location, purpose, number of square

feet, and other characteristics. What cost estimating technique are you using?

1. a) Parametric
2. b) Analogous
3. c) Bottom – up
4. d) Top – down
5. ______________ involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over time.
6. a) Reserve analysis
7. b) Life cycle costing
8. c) Project cost budgeting
9. d) Earned value analysis
10. _________________ is a project performance measurement technique that integrates scope time,

and cost data.

1. a) Reserve analysis
2. b) Life cycle costing
3. c) Project cost budgeting
4. d) Earned value analysis
5. If the actual cost for a WBS item is $1500 and its earned value was $2000, what is its cost

variance, and is it under or over budget?

1. a) The cost variance is -$500, which is over budget
2. b) The cost variance is -$500, which is under budget
3. c) The cost variance is $500, which is over budget
4. d) The cost variance is $500, which is under budget
5. If a project is halfway completed and its schedule performance index is 110% and its cost

performance index is 95%, how is it progressing?

1. a) It is ahead of schedule and under budget
2. b) It is ahead of schedule and over budget
3. c) It is behind schedule and under budget
4. d) It is behind schedule and over budget
5. To determine the cost of particular element in advance of the project, which technique can be employed?
6. a) Parametric estimating
7. b) As…………but…………s
8. c) Forecasts
9. d) All above
10. _______________ is the degree to which a set of inherent characteristics fulfills requirements.
11. a) Quality
12. b) Conformance to requirements
13. c) Fitness for use
14. d) Reliability
15. What is the purpose of project quality management?
16. a) To produce the highest quality products and services possible
17. b) To ensure that appropriate quality standards are met
18. c) To ensure that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken
19. d) All of the above
20. _______________ generates ideas for quality improvements by comparing specific project

practices or product characteristics to those of other projects or products within or outside the

performing organization.

1. a) Quality audits
2. b) Design of experiments
3. c) Six Sigma
4. d) Benchmarking
5. What tool could you use to determine whether a process is in control or out of control?
6. a) A cause – and – effect diagram
7. b) A control chart
8. c) A run chart
9. d) A scatter chart
10. Complication to the critical path represents the formation of compound series of activities often

involving different paths which has been termed

1. a) The critical chain
2. b) The critical path
3. c) TOC
4. d) Resource path
5. Six Sigma’s target for perfection is the achievement of no more than ________________ defects,

errors, or mistakes per million opportunities.

1. a) 6
2. b) 9
3. c) 3.4
4. d) 1
5. The seven run rule states that if seven data points in a row on a control chart are all below the

mean, above the means, or all increasing or decreasing, then the process needs to be examined for

_________________ problems.

1. a) Random
2. b) Non – random
3. c) Six Sigma
4. d) Quality
5. What is the preferred order for performing testing on information technology projects?
6. a) Unit testing, integration testing, system testing, user acceptance testing
7. b) Unit testing, system testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing
8. c) Unit testing, system testing, user acceptance testing, integration testing
9. d) Unit testing, integration testing, user acceptance testing, system testing
10. ___________________ is known for his work on quality control in Japan and developed the 14

points for Management in his text Out of the Crisis.

1. a) Juran
2. b) Deming
3. c) Crosby
4. d) Ishikawa
5. The theory of constraints (TOC) is successfully applied in
6. a) Planning
7. b) Checking
8. c) Manufacturing
9. d) Controlling
10. PMI’s OPM3 is an example of a ____________________ model or framework for helping

organization improve their processes and systems.

1. a) Benchmarking
2. b) Six Sigma
3. c) Maturity
4. d) Quality
5. Which of the following is not part of project human resource management?
6. a) Resource estimating
7. b) Acquiring the project team
8. c) Developing the project team
9. d) Managing the project team
10. _________________ causes people to participate in an activity for their own enjoyment.
11. a) Intrinsic motivation
12. b) Extrinsic motivation
13. c) Self motivation
14. d) Social motivation
15. At the bottom of Maslow’s pyramid or hierarchy of needs are _____________ needs.
16. a) Self – actualization
17. b) Esteem
18. c) Safety
19. d) Physiological
20. ________________ power is based on a person’s individual charisma.
21. a) Affiliation
22. b) Referent
23. c) Personality
24. d) Legitimate
25. What technique can you use to resolve resource conflicts by delaying tasks?
26. a) Resource loading
27. b) Resource leveling
28. c) Critical path analysis
29. d) Over allocation
30. Which of the following is not a tool or technique for managing project team?
31. a) Observation and conversation
32. b) Project performance appraisals
33. c) Issue logs
34. d) Social Styles Profile
35. What do many experts agree is the greatest threat to the success of any project?
36. a) Lack of proper funding
37. b) A failure to communicate
38. c) Poor listening skills
39. d) Inadequate staffing
40. Which communication skill is most important for information technology professionals for career

advancement?

1. a) Writing
2. b) Listening
3. c) Speaking
4. d) Using communication technologies
5. Which of the following is not a process in project communication management?
6. a) Information planning
7. b) Information distribution
8. c) Performance reporting
9. d) Managing stakeholders
10. A building may not be constructed unless the planning permission for it has been obtained, this is

the

1. a) Legal constraint
2. b) Quality constraint
3. c) Cost constraint
4. d) Logic constraint
5. A ________________ report describes where the project stands at a specific point in time.
6. a) Status
7. b) Performance
8. c) Forecast
9. d) Earned value
10. __________________ is an uncertainly that can have a negative or positive effect on meeting

project objectives.

1. a) Risk utility
2. b) Risk tolerance
3. c) Risk management
4. d) Risk
5. A person who is a risk – ______________ receives greater satisfaction when more payoffs is at

stake and is willing to pay a penalty to take risks.

1. a) Averse
2. b) Seeking
3. c) Neutral
4. d) Aware
5. Which risk management process involves prioritizing based on their probability and impact of

occurrence?

1. a) Risk management planning
2. b) Risk identification
3. c) Qualitative risk analysis
4. d) Quantitative risk analysis
5. The 7-S framework of project management issues was promoted by
6. a) McJonald and Co.
7. b) McKinsly and Co.
8. c) J & K Co.
9. d) None
10. Your project involves using a new release of a software application, but if that release is not

available, your team has ______________ plans to use the current release.

1. a) Contingency
2. b) Fallback
3. c) Reserve
4. d) Mitigation
5. A risk _________________ is a document that contains results of various risk management

processes, often displayed in a table or spreadsheet format.

1. a) Management plan
2. b) Register
3. c) Breakdown structure
4. d) Probability / impact matrix
5. Your project team has decided not to use an upcoming release of software because it might cause

your schedule to slip. Which negative risk response strategy are you using?

1. a) Avoidance
2. b) Acceptance
3. c) Transference
4. d) Mitigation
5. For non critical activities, network diagrams build in …………………………. at the start of

activities.

1. a) Temporary
2. b) Buffer
3. c) Slack
4. d) Anywhere
5. If a project being undertaken by a particular project team, then these are referred as
6. a) Resource capability
7. b) Resource capacity
8. c) Resource calendar
9. d) Resource pool
10. The term ‘hedgehog syndrome’ means
11. a) Management problem
12. b) Solving problem
13. c) Repetition of problem
14. d) Find out a problem
15. What is the first procurement process?
16. a) Planning contracting
17. b) Planning purchasing and acquisitions
18. c) Requesting seller responses
19. d) Procurement management planning
20. The _____________ is the point at which the contractor assumes total responsibility for each

additional dollar of contract cost.

1. a) A breakeven point
2. b) Share ratio point
3. c) Point of reconciliation
4. d) Point of total assumption
5. We’re standing on this hill here. We want to be on that hill over there, this is
6. a) View
7. b) Vision
8. c) Mission
9. d) Aim
10. A ______________________ is a document prepared by a seller when there are different

approaches for meeting buyer needs.

1. a) RFP
2. b) RFQ
3. c) Proposal
4. d) Quote
5. Buyers often prepare a ______________________ list when selecting a seller to make this

process more manageable.

1. a) Preferred
2. b) Short
3. c) Qualified suppliers
4. d) BAFO
5. A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of a(n) ______________________.
6. a) RFP
7. b) NPV analysis
8. c) Earned value analysis
9. d) Weighted scoring model
10. __________________ is a term used to describe various procurement functions that are

now done electronically.

1. a) E – procurement
2. b) eBay
3. c) E – commerce
4. d) EMV

 

 

 

 

 

SIX SIGMA GREEN BELT

 

1. The Following is a sample data set. 10 8 8 6 5 What is the variance of this data set?
2. 3.0
3. 3.8
4. 7.3
5. 7.4
6. An auditor should use a histogram in a quality audit to do which of the following?
7. Provide objective evidence that the audited uses statistical process control (SPC)
8. Expose patterns that are normally difficult to detect
9. Interpret data for a trend chart
10. create a stratified tally diagram
11. Comparing how a process is actually performed against the documented work instruction for that

process is an example of which of the following techniques?

1. Quantitative
2. Qualitative
3. Statistical
4. Random sampling
5. Attribute sampling should be used when
6. The data are measurements in metric units.
7. Ayes-or-no decision is to be made.
8. The population has variability.
9. A multi-stage sampling plan is needed.
10. Scatter diagrams are best described as
11. Histograms.
12. Correlation analysis.
13. Pareto analysis.
14. Ishikawa diagrams.
15. If data are plotted over time, the resulting chart will be a
16. Run chart
17. Histogram
18. Pareto chart
19. Poisson distribution
20. To determine who are or might be customers for a specific process, it would be most useful to create a
21. Pareto chart
22. Flow diagram
23. Cause and effect diagram
24. Scatter diagram
25. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line to indicate when components or raw materials

need to be replenished. The practice is an example of

1. Kanban
2. Poka-yake
3. Checkpoints
4. Hoshin
5. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycle time reduction and concurrent operations?
6. A timeline
7. A Pareto diagram
8. An X and R chart
9. A PERT chart
10. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of the following? Attribute variable
11. Counted values measured values
12. Counted values visual features
13. Measured values counted values
14. Visual features counted values
15. All of the following are common ways for people to react to conflict EXCEPT
16. Competing
17. Collaborating
18. Avoiding
19. Sabotaging
20. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction by talking samples based on the

categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and demographic. This technique is known as

1. Random sampling
2. Data collection
3. Stratification
4. Customer classification
5. Which of the following actions is Not used to reduce process cycle time?
6. Analyzing current processes
7. Reducing queue times
8. Setting priorities
9. Implementing activity-based costing
10. A company’s accounts payable department is trying to reduce the time between receipt and payment

of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the following tools would be the for them to

use next?

1. Fishbone diagram
2. Scatter diagram
3. Box and whisker plat
4. Histogram
5. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of customer in relation to the human

resource department?

1. Intermediate
2. Hidden
3. External
4. Internal
5. The primary purpose of a project charter is to
6. Subdivide the project into smaller, more manageable components
7. Provide management with a tool for selecting a project that addresses business needs
8. Provide management with a tool to ensure that project deadlines are met
9. Provide the project manager with authority to apply organizational resources to project activities
10. Sample selection of parts for inspection must be selected at random to ensure
11. A minimum sample size.
12. The probability of not rejecting the lot
13. The probability of accepting the lot
14. Finding typical characteristics of the lot.
15. Which of the following are bases for establishing calibration intervals?
16. Stability

II.Purpose

III.Degree of usage

1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III
5. Specification limits are derived from which of the following?
6. Process capability studies
7. Process control charts
8. Customer requirements
9. Historical data
10. The primary purpose of a control chart is to
11. Set Specifications and tolerances
12. compare operations.
13. Determine the stability of a process.
14. Accept or reject a lot of material
15. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of the following

times?

1. Before the chart is first started
2. After the first ten points are plotted
3. When the plotted points hug the centerline
4. After the process is shown to be in control
5. Precision is best described as
6. A comparison to a known standard
7. The achievement of expected outgoing quality
8. The repeated consistency of results
9. The difference between an average measurement and the actual value
10. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain Consistent results repeatedly when measuring

the same set of parts and using the same measuring equipment is the definition of

1. Repeatability
2. Precision
3. Reproducibility
4. Accuracy
5. Which of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of statistical control?
6. Most of the product out by the process is in specification.
7. All subgroup averages and rang are within control limits.
8. All variation has been completely removed
9. Previously optimal process settings are used.
10. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to the sum of deviations from the mean

squared divided by the sample size?

1. Range
2. Standard deviation
3. Variance
4. Mode
5. An X and R chart is used to
6. Indicate process variation
7. Specify design Limits
8. Interpret costs
9. Identify customer expectations
10. Which of the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting an understanding of process

capability?

1. A flowchart
2. a histogram
3. An affinity diagram
4. An Ishikawa diagram
5. The type of chart that presents the value of items in descending order is a
6. Histogram
7. Pareto chart
8. U chart
9. Cusum chart
10. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?
11. Temperature in degrees
12. Attendance at meetings
13. Weight in pounds
14. Length in metric units

5

30. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control chart?
31. P chart
32. U chart
33. Np chart
34. C chart
35. A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which of the following?
36. Determining the flow of a process
37. Detecting shifts in a process
38. Developing theories based on symptoms
39. Arranging theories by defect count
40. Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
41. Mode
42. Mean
43. Standard deviation
44. Range
45. Which of the following types of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?
46. Histogram
47. Frequency distributions
48. Pareto chart
49. Process observations
50. Which of the following techniques is most useful in narrowing issues and limiting discussion?
51. Brainstorming
52. Quality function deployment
53. Cause and effect analysis
54. Mutilating
55. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or systematic is called
56. Bias
57. Sensitivity
58. Random
59. Shift
60. A customer satisfaction survey used the following rating scale:

1= very satisfied

2= Satisfied

3= Neutral

4= dissatisfied

5= very dissatisfied

This is an example of which of the following measurement scales?

1. Nominal
2. Ordinal
3. Ratio
4. Interval
5. Which of the following techniques is used in identifying underlying problems?
6. Cause and effect analysis
7. Prioritization matrix
8. Force field analysis
9. Pareto analysis
10. For a normal distribution, two standard deviation on each side of the mean would include what

percentage of the total population

1. 47%
2. 68%
3. 95%
4. 99%
5. In measurement system analysis, which of the following pairs of data measures is used to determine

total variance?

1. Process variance and reproducibility
2. Noise system and repeatability
3. Measurement variance and process variance
4. System variance and bias
5. Process data being used in the initial set-up of a process are assumed have a normal distribution. If the

nominal (target) is at the center of the distribution, and the specification limits are set at = 3 from the

center the Cpk is equal to

1. -0.25
2. 1.00
3. 1.33
4. 1.67
5. A green belt is going to monitor the number of defects on different size samples. Which of the

following control chart would be most appropriate?

1. u
2. np
3. c
4. p
5. Correction, over-production, inventory, and motion are all examples of
6. waste
7. 5S target areas
8. Noise
9. Value-added activities
10. The primary factor in the successful implementation of six sigma is to have
11. The necessary resources
12. The support/leadership of top management
13. Explicit customer requirements
14. A comprehensive training program
15. Which of the following types of variation is LEAST likely to occur in sequential repetitions of a

process over a short period of time?

1. Cyclical
2. Positional
3. Temporal
4. Seasonal
5. The primary reason that most companies implement six sigma is to
6. Reduce defects
7. Improve Processes
8. Improve profit
9. Increase customer satisfaction
10. The term used to describe the risk of a type I error in a test of hypotheses is
11. Power
12. Confidence level
13. Level of significance
14. Beta risk
15. One characteristic of attributes data is that it is always
16. continuous
17. Discrete
18. Expensive to collect
19. Read from a scale of measurement
20. Which of the following tests may be used to determine whether a sample comes from a population

with an exponential distribution?

1. T
2. F
3. Chi-square
4. ANOVA
5. Which of the following tools are appropriate for a quality engineer to use in qualifying a process that

has variable data?

1. An and R control chat
2. A his to gram

III. A cc hart

1. A p chart
2. I and II only
3. II and III only
4. III and IV only
5. I, II, and IV only
6. The correlation coefficient for the length and weight of units made by a process is determined to be

0.27. if the process were adjusted to reduce the weight of each unit by 0.5 ounce, the correlation

coefficient of the length and weight of the units made by the new process would be equal to

1. 0.50
2. 0.27
3. 0.23
4. -0.23
5. A form, in either diagram or table format, that is prepared in advance for recording data is known as a
6. Cause-and-effect diagram
7. Pareto chart
8. Flowchart
9. Check sheet
10. A major drawback of using histogram in process control is that they
11. do not readily account for the factor of time
12. Are relatively difficult to construct and interpret
13. Require too many data points
14. Require too many intervals
15. Which of the following tools would be of the greatest use for finding the most efficient path and

realistic schedule for the completion of a project?

1. Interrelationship diagram
2. Activity network diagram
3. Tree diagram
4. Affinity diagram
5. A control plan is designed to do which of the following?
6. Supplement information contained in operator instructions
7. Support the production scheduling system
8. Provide a documented system for controlling processes
9. Provide a method for tracking the design review process
10. To determine the average number of nonconforming parts over time, which of the following attribute

control chart would be most appropriate?

1. A chat
2. Np chart
3. P chart
4. U chat
5. Which of the following techniques is most appropriate for generating continuous improvement ideas?
6. Tree diagram
7. Brainstorming
8. Prioritization matrix
9. Interrelationship diagraph
10. Which of the following tools is used extensively quality function deployment (QFD)?
11. Affinity diagram
12. Matrix diagram
13. Cause and effect diagram
14. Activity network diagram
15. Which of the following tools is most likely to be organizing a list of ideas generated during a

brainstorming session?

1. Activity network diagram
2. Affinity diagram
3. Histogram
4. Process control chart
5. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the symptoms of

a problem?

1. A check sheet
2. A flow diagram
3. A force field analysis
4. An activity network diagram
5. Kaizen is defined as
6. Re-engineering
7. Lean manufacturing
8. Continuous improvement
9. Error –proofing
10. The LEAST informative of the four measurement scales is the
11. Ratio
12. Nominal
13. Ordinal
14. Interval
15. Which of the following can used to determine the goodness of fit of a distribution to a data set?
16. T test
17. ANOVA
18. F rest
19. Chi square test
20. A fair coin is tossed 10 times. What are the expected mean and variance of the number of heads?

Mean variance

1. 0.5 0.025
2. 5.0 2.500
3. 5.0 5.000
4. 10.0 5.000
5. A process capability analysis is NOT used to
6. Determine the ability of a process to meet specifications
7. Maintain a process in a state of statistical control
8. Establish new specifications
9. Prioritize competing processes
10. A type of line graph used to assess the stability of a process is called a
11. Control chart
12. Pareto chart
13. Check sheet
14. cause and effect diagram
15. A process produces nonconformities according to a distribution. If the mean of the nonconformities is

25, what is the standard deviation?

2. 2.5
3. 5.0
4. 12.5
5. 25.0
6. Five six-sided dice are rolled together 100 times. Two histograms are constructed: one for the 500

individual results and one for the 100 averages of five results. In this situation, the individual results

follow a uniform distribution, while the averages follow which of the following distributions?

1. Normal
2. Student’s t
3. Binomial

Examination Paper of Six Sigma Green Belt

IIBM Institute of Business Management 10

1. Uniform
2. A calibrated micrometer was used to take 10 replicated measures of a reference standard. If X

m=0.073, and the true value of the reference standard is 0.075, what is the bias of the micrometer?

1. 0.001
2. 0.002
3. 0.073
4. 0.075
5. The power of a test for the difference between means is measured by
6. A
7. 1-a
8. B
9. 1-b
10. A process is stable and its output is normally distributed. The process has a specification of

16.73=0.01. What is the maximum process standard deviation if the Cp must be=1.5?

1. 0.0011

b.0.0022

1. 0.0041
2. 0.0133
3. Which of the following is the most effective technique for prioritizing critical factors foe problemsolving?
4. Venn diagram
5. Scatter diagram
6. Pareto diagram
7. Cause and effect diagram
8. The main advantage of a matrix diagram is that it
9. Displays all the possible causes related to a problem
10. Displays the strength of relationship between each paired combination of variables
11. Identifies, analyzes, and classifies the cause and effect relationship that among all critical issues
12. Identifies a sequence of actions and materials entering a process
13. Poka-yake is best defined as
14. Improving machine efficiency
15. Reducing field failures to virtually zero
16. Capturing the voice of the customer
17. Preventing controllable defects
18. Which of the following describes the 95% confidence interval of a 20% absentee rate in a department

with 30 people?

1. 6% to 34%
2. 8% to 32%
3. 13% to 27%
4. 17% to 23%
5. Which of the following are needed to calculate the process capability index,Cp?
6. The specification limits and the mean
7. The specification limits and s^ (Sigma Cap)
8. The process mean and s^(Sigma Cap)
9. The upper and lower specification limits
10. Repeatability and reproducibility are terms that operationally define
11. Bias
12. Accuracy
13. Discrimination
14. Precision’
15. A method that classifies data without significantly reducing accuracy or precision is known as
16. Bias adjustment
17. Statistical efficiency
18. Blocking
19. Coding
20. If a process has a variance of 4 units and a specification of 96+4, what is the process performance

index (Pp)?

1. 0.33
2. 0.66
3. 1.00
4. 1.50
5. If a histogram has a distribution that is bimodal this indicates that the
6. Process is in control
7. Distribution is abnormal
8. Data collected is accurate
9. data has two points
10. Which of the following best describes how an affinity diagram is used?
11. Grasping organizational performance relative to contrasting data
12. Prioritizing data from most signification to least significant
13. Grouping ideas that are created during brainstorming
14. Identifying when a process is in control
15. Warranty claims are classified in which of the following cost of quality groups?
16. Internal failure
17. External failure
18. Appraisal
19. Prevention
20. At what stage of the problem-solving process would a team most likely use a cause-effect diagram?
21. Description of the process associated with the problem
22. Definition of the problem and its scope
23. Organization of possible problem causes
24. Collection of data to identify actual causes
25. Steel bars are cut to cylindrical shafts by means of a lathe. The diameter and allowable tolerance of

the shaft is 2.00=.001 inch. A control chart is used to monitor the quality level of the process. Which of

the following plots on the control chart might indicate a problem of wear on the lathe?

2. The diameter of a single shaft above 2.001 inch
3. the diameter of a single shaft below 1.999 inch
4. An Apparent increasing trend in the shaft diameters
5. Erratic in-tolerance or out-of-tolerance diameter measurements
6. A sample consists of one or more units of product drawn from a lot or batch on the basis of
7. Defect of the product
8. Random selection
9. Size of the product
10. When the inspection process was completed
11. What is the percent yield for a normally distributed process in which the item length specification is

5.750=0.004, X is 5.752, and the standard deviation is 0.002?

15. 15.73%
16. 19.15%
17. 47.72%
18. 83.99%
19. In preparation for construction of a cause and effect diagram, it is important to
20. Plot separate chart for each source
21. Focus only on what makes thing go wrong
22. Record everything people suggest
23. Validate possible root cause
24. Which of the following tools should be used a team is generating and prioritizing a list of options that

include highly controversial issues?

1. Brainstorming
2. Affinity diagram
3. Nominal group technique
4. 5 whys
5. If a distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what percentage of data will be less than 30?
6. 59.18%
7. 40.82%
8. 9.18%
9. 1.33%
10. A company is receiving an unusually high number of returns from various customers. The first step in

investigating the problem would be to

1. Check the inspection records
2. Establish the correlation of the returns to shipments
3. Brainstorm the potential causes
4. Classify the returns by type and degree of serious
5. Which of the following is the best definition of a flow chart?
6. A diagram used to structure ideas into useful categories
7. An illustration used to analyze variation in a process
8. A picture used to separate steps of a process in sequential order
9. An analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a desired change
10. Which of the following activities would NOT contribute to the effective functioning of a team?
11. Eliminating unnecessary activities
12. Development team performance measures
13. Defining process in detail
14. Monitoring each member’s performance
15. What is the standard deviation of the population below?

10, 4, 16, 12, 8

4. 4.00
5. 4.47
6. 16.00
7. 20.00
8. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the symptoms of

a problem?

1. Check sheet
2. Flow diagram
3. Force-field analysis
4. Activity network diagram
5. Which of the following measures is a sufficient statistic for the parameter u?
6. Median
7. Mid-range
8. Mean
9. Mode
10. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most commonly analyzed in
11. SPC charts
12. Multi-vari charts
13. Cause and effect diagram
14. Run charts
15. Which of the following describes the deming method for continuous improvement?
16. Cost of quality analysis
17. Process map
18. Tree Diagram
19. Plan-do-check-act cycle
20. in analysis of variance, Which of the following distributions is the basis for determining whether the

variance estimates are all from the same population?

1. Chi square
2. Student’s
3. Normal
4. F
5. Which of the following statement best describes the set all value of a random variable?
6. It is finite.
7. It is an interval
8. It can be discrete or continuous.
9. It can be tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.
10. Which of the following is the best description of randomization?
11. A technique used to increase the precision of an experiment
12. A means of assuring representative sampling
13. The repetition of an observation or measurement
14. The relationship between two or more variables
15. When the order of items is not important, which of the following is the method to use to determine

the number of sets and subsets of items?

1. Combination
2. Permutation
3. Factorization
4. Simulation

 

 

 

 

Strategic Cost Management
Multiple Choices:
1. A set of policies, procedures and approaches that helps a firm attain and retain success for long is termed as

a)Benchmarking
b) Life cycle costing
c) Target costing
d) Strategy
2. A cost management tool that bring in its focus the activities performed to produced a product
is called a)
Target costing
b) Life cycle costing
c) ABC
d) Benchmarking
3. Cost incurred to the past that are not relevant to present decisions are a)
Fixed cost
b) Sunk cost
c) Opportunity cost
d) Indirect costs
4. In a process costing system, when items are sold, the cost of the item are moved from a)
Work-in-progress to finished goods
b) Work-in-progress to Cost of goods sold
c) Cost of goods sold to finished good
d) Finished goods to cost of goods sold
5. Differential costs are sometimes referred to as a)
Incremental costs
b) Relevant costs
c) Avoidable costs
d) Both a& b
6. Customer service feature does not include a)
Warranty and repair service
b) Adherence to specifications

c) On-time delivery
d) Follow-up with customer after the sale.
7. Product cost are function ofa)
Product design
b) Specific customers
c) Customer characteristics
d) Market segments
8. The company‟s overall sales performance is influenced by factors such as a)
Sales volume
b) Sales Mix
c) Market size and share
d) All of the above
9. Customer life cycle cost includes a)
Purchases price
b) Start-up costs
c) Post-purchase cost
d) All of the above
10. Which stage of product life cycle is characterized by little competition and slowly increasing
sales?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline
Part Two:
1. List the characteristics of Balance score card.
2. What are the methods of Alternative costing?
3. Differentiate between fixed cost and variable cost.
4. Discuss the dissimilarities between job order costing & process costing systems.

Caselet 1

1. Discuss why Vikram has an ethical responsibility to take some action against the MNC.
   2. Which of the alternative courses would be the most appropriate in the given situation?

Caselet 2

Questions:
1. Prepare an organizational structure of brilliant University.
2. List the name of the departments having under the university.
Section C: Long Questions (30 Marks)

1. What is “Cost management”? Explain the primary objectives of cost management?
2. Define “Target costing”; discuss the principles of target costing.

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Project Management in Information Technology

Part One:
Multiple forms:
1. „Enterprise project management software (EPMS)‟ integrates information from a single project to
show the status.(T/F)
2. Gantt chart is used for the___________
3. In Adaptive approach for software development the focus is on___________
a. Time based cycles to meet the target dates
b. No time based cycles
c. Although time based but no target date
d. None
4. IEEE standard_____________ describes the contents of software project management plan.
a. 1058 – 1997
b. 1058 – 1998
c. 1058 – 1999
d. 1058 – 1996
5. Scope creep means________
a. The tendency for project scope to shrink
b. The tendency for project scope to grow bigger and bigger
c. The tendency for project scope to collapse completely
d. None
6. Slack or float is the amount of time an activity may be delayed without delaying succeeding
activity.(T/F)
7. „PERT‟ stands for_________
8. „Murphy‟ law states_________
a. If something can go wrong, it can be corrected.
b. If something can go wrong , it will

c. If something can no go wrong , it will
d. None
9. Project that use Six Sigma principles for quality control normally follows a 5 phase improvement
process called DMAIC, here A stands for_______
a. Art
b. Analyze
c. Allies
d. None
10. Fishbone diagram is also called_______
a. Gantt diagram
b. Murphy diagram
c. Parkinson diagram
d. Ishikawa diagram
Part Two:

1. Write a note on „Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)‟.
   2. Define the Earned value?
   3. Explain the Kichoff meeting?
   4. How would you explain the Cross-Referencing requirement Matrix?

Caselet 1

1. What according to you are the factors that can hamper the profit growth related with the project?
2. Mention some strategies to further improve the project‟s turnover.

Caselet 2

1. According to you what the skills needed for the project management of organization?
2. How could have been the six sigma project became a helpful tool in very sophisticated kind of
   project management?

Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words).·
1. How would you explain the project manager? Explain the characteristics of the successful project
manager?

 

2. Define the IT project plan? Discuss the IT project plan format in detail?

 

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Database Management Systems
Multiple choices:
1. A collection of related sets of data items along with necessary data/ information associated with it.
a. Data
b. Information
c. Process
d. Database
2. ___________connects computers which are very remotely placed.
a. Local Area Network
b. Wide Area Network
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None
3. A column in a table is called__________
a. Field
b. Record
c. Tuple
d. Link
4. DDL stands for ___________
a. Data Definition Language
b. Data Decision Language
c. Database Definition Language
d. None
5. SQL stands for ___________
a. Structured Query Language
b. Statement Query Language
c. Strict Query language
d. None

Part Two:

1. List the different types of DBMS.
   2. Differentiate between „DBMS‟ and „RDBMS‟.
   3. What do you mean by „Data Dictionary‟?
   4. Differentiate between discretionary access control and mandatory access control.

Section B: Caselets (40 marks)
Caselet 1

1. What are the roles of a database in present scenario?

Caselet 2

1. Discuss various anomalies in databases. How would you improve data management in
   organizations?

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

1. What do you understand by relational data model? Explain relational constraints and relational
database schemas
2. What are the similarities and dissimilarities in the software development life cycle and database
development life cycle?

 

Information Technology & Management

Part One:

Multiple Choices:

1. It means data that have been processed in a form that is meaningful and useful to the user.

a. Data

b. Information

c. System

d. None of the above

2. BCR stands for____________

a. Bar code reader

b. Basic code reader

c. Business code reader

d. None of the above

3. Which of the following comes under output devices?

a. Printer

b. Speaker

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. None

4. A trackball is a stationary device related to the_______

a. Keyboard

b. Joystick

c. Mouse

d. All of the above

5. ___________is a volatile memory and everything disappears if power goes off or is turned off

abruptly in the middle of work.

a. RAM

b. ROM

c. CDROM

d. None of the above

6. IC stands for____________

a. Integrated Circuit

b. Information Circuit

c. Interrelated Circuit

d. None of the above

7. DSS stands for____________

a. Decision Support System

b. Direction Support System

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. None of the above

8. How many characters uses the MICR system?

a. 15 characters

b. 18 characters

c. 24 characters

d. 14 characters

9. One Megabyte contains:

a. 1000 KB

b. 1000 Bytes

c. 1000 MB

d. None of the above

10. The smallest element of data is called_______

a. Byte

b. Bit

c. Giga byte

d. None of the above

Part Two:

1. Write a note on „Cache Memory‟.

2. List the different types of information systems.

3. Write a short note on „Value Chain Analysis‟

4. Discuss peer- to – peer model in distributed computing system.

Questions:

1. Why has eBay become such a successful and diverse online marketplace? Visit the eBay website

to help you answer, and check out their many trading categories, specialty sites, international

sites, and other features.

2. Why do you think eBay has become the largest online/offline seller of used cars, and the largest

online seller of certain other products, like computers and photographic equipment?

Caselet 2

Questions:

1. Why have developments in IT helped to increase the value of the data resources of many companies?

2. How can companies use IT to meet the challenges of data resources security?

1. Explain distributed systems. What are the advantages and disadvantages of distributed systems?

2. What do you mean by database? List the different types of database model.

 

 

 

MARKETING MANAGEMENT

Multiple choices:

1. A collection of related sets of data items along with necessary data/ information associated with it.

a. Data

b. Information

c. Process

d. Database

2. ___________connects computers which are very remotely placed.

a. Local Area Network

b. Wide Area Network

c. Both (a) & (b)

d. None

3. A column in a table is called__________

a. Field

b. Record

c. Tuple

d. Link

4. DDL stands for ___________

a. Data Definition Language

b. Data Decision Language

c. Database Definition Language

d. None

5. SQL stands for ___________

a. Structured Query Language

b. Statement Query Language

c. Strict Query language

d. None

Part Two:

1. List the different types of DBMS.

2. Differentiate between „DBMS‟ and „RDBMS‟.

3. What do you mean by „Data Dictionary‟?

4. Differentiate between discretionary access control and mandatory access control.

1. What are the roles of a database in present scenario?

Caselet 2

1. Discuss various anomalies in databases. How would you improve data management in organizations?

1. What do you understand by relational data model? Explain relational constraints and relational

database schemas

2. What are the similarities and dissimilarities in the software development life cycle and database

development life cycle?

 
Telecommunications Essentials

Multiple Choices:

1. This band transmits uplink around the 6GHz range & downlink around the 4GHz range.

a. C-Band

b. Ku-Band

c. Ka-Band

d. L-Band

2. On these trunks, traffic flows in both the incoming & outgoing directions.

a. DOD trunks

b. DID trunks

c. Two-way local exchange trunks

d. None

3. As networks become more digitized, fewer conversions take place, and voice can be carried at a

higher quality over fewer flower bits per second.

a. PCM

b. ADPCM

c. DCSs

d. DLCs

4. _____________ is a standard for storage & retrieval of moving pictures & audio on storage

media.

a. MPEG-1

b. MPEG-2

c. MPEG-4

d. MPEG-7

5. It is an open standard for digital video transmission over cable that was defined by ETSI &

ratified in 1994.

a. DVB-H

b. DVB-T

c. DVB-C

d. DVB-S & DVB-S2

6. It is the oldest of DSL technologies & a symmetrical service, measuring that it provides equal

bandwidth in the both directions.

a. HDSL

b. SDSL

c. G. SHDSL

d. ADSL

7. It is the newest spread spectrum technique, and its main purpose is to resolve the problems

a. CDMA

b. TDMA

c. OFDM

d. ADPCM

8. It is a new concept in multimedia mobile broadcasting service, converging broadcasting and

telecommunications.

a. DMB

b. OFDM

c. VF

d. None

9. It is a Niche broadband wireless technology that at first appears to complete for market share with

mobile WiMax & Mobile-Fi.

a. HiperAccess

b. HiperMan

c. iBursrt

d. ETSI BRAN

10. In-FUSIO‟s (www. Infusion.com) __________ is best known for its business model, which

supports a variety of revenue models, including pay-per-level and SMS high scores.

a. JavaME

b. BREW

c. EXEn

d. Mophun

Part Two:

1. State the protocols & implementations which are associated with Mesh Network.

2. Write a short note on HFC Architecture and draw the topology of an HFC network.

3. What is the IP multimedia system?

4. What is Symmetric Encryptions?

5. Briefly explain the major layers of IPT network taxonomy.

Caselet 1

Questions:

1. How does this case demonstrate the importance of data transmission rates in business? Does it

imply that people in Japan are willing to accept lower data rates than people in the U.S.?

2. Some people say that the Internet fosters globalization by providing world wide access to the

Web. Discuss arguments for and against this statement.

Caselet 2

Questions:

1. Why might portable computing and desktop computing call for different types of micro-processors?

2. Review the performance variables. In which areas did the Transmeta chip try to excel?

Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)

1. DNS is a distributed database system that operates on the basis of a hierarchy of names. Explain

the statement & also explain how DNS servers work.

2. Explain the workings of GSM, UWC, CdmaOne & PDC technologies of digital cellular.

 

 

 

 

MARKETING MANAGEMENT

Multiple Choices:

1. Which technology is among the early starter in providing VoWiFi solutions for enterprises with

wireless networks?

a. Symbol Technologies

b. Vocera Technologies

c. Spectra link Technologies

d. None

2. In wireless networks ___________ refers to the measure of the performance for a system

reflecting its transmission quality & service availability.

a. Internet speeds

b. Quality of Service (QOS)

c. Interoperability

d. Line of Sight

3. A single IP-based core network handling the full range of telecom services.

a. Power line Communication (PLC)

b. VOIP

c. OFCOM

d. Next Generation Networks

4. Which country has the strong competitive broadband market with a penetration of 16%.

a. India

b. USA

c. Japan

d. China

5. Out of the following which project aims to substantially replace all of Bt‟s existing network

platform (PSTDN, ISDN etc) with a single unified IP platform.

a. ADSL2

b. 21CN

c. ATM

d. SHDS

6. Which generation of mobile telephony will serve both voice & data applications?

a. 1G

b. 2G

c. 3G

d. 4G

7. This is a high bandwidth wireless networking service that operates in the frequency spectrum of

28-31 GHz range.

a. MMDS

b. LMDS

c. BW

d. None

8. Which management establishes the right architecture to deliver more products, better leveraging

development & deployment expenditures?

a. Product Portfolio Management

b. Partner Management

c. Platform Management

d. None

9. ___________ Frequencies allow multiple service providers to utilize the same section of the

spectrum & compete with each other for customers.

a. Licensed

b. Unlicensed

c. Both

d. None of the above

10. LAS-CDMA stands for ______________

Part Two:

1. What is Backhauling solution?

2. What is Broadband?

3. What is WiMAX?

4. What is THIPON?

5. What is a VOWiFi?

Section B: Caselets (40 Marks)

This section consists of Caselets.·

Answer all the questions.·

Each Caselet carries 20 marks.·

Detailed information should form the part of your answer (Word limit 150 to 200 words).·

Caselet 1

Required:

Comment on the strategy which is adopted by the FCC “broadband wireline Internet access services” is

fruitful or not?

When operators and investors consider starting down the road of network building, they need

considerable information to prove their business plan and persuade their spectrum regulator to provide

Caselet 2

Questions:

1. Explain the concept of ATDI.

2. What are the measures which are behind the success of the ATDI methodology?

3. What is GSM/3G technology?

4. Write down the steps which are to be known in auto planning.

Section C: Applied Theory (30 Marks)

1. WiFi/mobile roaming and VoWiFi may play an important role for fixed-mobile convergence.

Explain.

2. Does a „light touch‟ regulation regime make sense within the NGN environment? What benefits

& risks do you see with a „light-touch‟?

 

 

 

Retail Management 

 

 

Multiple Choices:

 

1. The minimum value of Conversion ratio is,

 

2. The law of retail gravitation is also called,

 

3. In Huff’s probability model of retail store location, the exponential ‘alpha’ denotes,

 

4. If the market has low level of retail saturation then the chances of success in the market is,

 

5. If the original price be ‘a’ and the reduce price be ‘b’ then the mark down % in Pricing

 

1. 0

 

1. 0.5

 

1. 2

 

1. 1

 

1. Huff’s law.

 

1. Belly’s law.

 

1. Philip Kotler’s law.

 

1. Relly’s law.

 

1. The attractiveness of the store.

 

1. Power of the store in terms of potential customer located farthest.

 

1. It is simply a power over the attractiveness of the store.

 

1. None.

 

1. Higher.

 

1. Lower.

 

1. Unpredictable.

 

1. Extremely lower

 

techniques is given by,

 

1. (a – b)/a.

 

1. (a – b)/b.

 

1. (b – a)/a.

 

1. (b – a)/b.

 

 

Part Two:

 

1. What do mean by ‘Super market’?

 

2. What do you understand by Upper and Lower threshold in pricing methodologies?

 

3. What does the term ‘silent market’ say?

 

4. Explain ‘Gap theory’ related with service quality.

 

5. Explain barometric technique used for sales forecasting.

 

 

Caselet 1

 

 

1. Do you think that an exclusive brand retail store would work in India? Or a mix of formats for a

 

brand? Discuss.

 

2. Will the franchisee route to a faster roll-out of retail outlets work for these jewellery brands?

 

What are the pros and cons?

 

Caselet 2

 

 

1. What store format mix would you recommend for the company?

 

2. Did the company do the right thing by extending the in-store brand to the wholesale channel?

 

What should it do now?

 

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

 

 

1. “The Indian Retail sectors are witnessing a transition phase where organized retailing is taking a

 

lead over unorganized retailing”. In the light of above statement, explain the current states of

 

Indian Retailing.

 

2. “The customer is fully satisfied when the perceived services meets or exceeds their

 

expectations”. Explain?

 

 

 

 

 

Consumer Behavior

 

 

Multiple Choices:

 

1. The Yellow color is related with personality links like

 

1. Caution, warmth

 

1. Power, informality

 

1. Passion, excitement

 

1. Purity, innocence

 

2. Consumers having high ethnocentric value in CETSCALE for foreign made products are likely to

 

feel that

 

1. It is worthy to purchase the foreign products.

 

1. It is wrong to purchase foreign made products.

 

1. Only foreign made products should be purchased.

 

1. They should remain neutral.

 

3. If the OSL(optimum stimulation level) score of a person is greater than the lifestyle he/she is

 

living then he/she likely to

 

1. Take rest

 

1. Appear quite satisfied

 

1. Seem bored

 

1. Can not be predicted.

 

4. The psychologists who disagree with the Freud’s theory of personality are usually referred as

 

1. Non Freudians

 

1. Freudians

 

1. Neo Freudians

 

1. C-Freudians

 

5. According to Sigmund Freud, the human personality consists of 3 interacting systems viz the id,

 

the superego and the ego. What actually ‘id’ refers to

 

1. Its role is to see the individual’s needs in a socially acceptable fashion.

 

1. Its role is to drive impulsions for the needs to be satisfied immediately.

 

1. Its function is to control and balance the impulsive demands.

 

1. None

 

 

Part Two:

 

1. What is a ‘common man approach’?

 

2. Differentiate between ‘Enculturation’ and ‘Acculturation’.

 

3. Write a short note on ‘Rokeach Value Survey’, a widely used value instrument, in consumer

 

behavior studies.

 

4. Explain the ‘Sociometric method’ of measurement in ‘Opinion Leadership’.

 

5. What do you understand by the term ‘Viral marketing’?

 

 

 

Caselet 1

 

1. Explain the “role and status” for Macnine shoes.

 

2. Suggest some ways of changing consumer perception of Macnine shoes.

 

 

END OF SECTION B

 

 

1. A college student has just purchased a new personal computer. What factors might cause the

 

2. An Advertising on a known deodorant shows a young beautiful girl is upset to meet her

 

student to experience post purchase dissonance? How might the student try to overcome it?

 

How can the retailer who sold the computer help reduce the student’s dissonance? How can

 

the computer’s manufacturer help?

 

boyfriend, as friends point out at her “Bad body odour”. The advertisement is trying to arouse

 

which motive in the consumer? Discuss by giving one similar examples?

 
Principles & Practices of Banking

 

Multiple Choices:

1. Frequency of First Tranche Returns is:

a. Weekly

b. Monthly

c. Monthly/quarterly

d. Monthly/quarterly/half-yearly

2. An order for winding up a banking company can be issued by___________

a. The High Court

b. The RBI

c. The Central Government

d. The Supreme court

3. Who shall be natural guardian in case of married minor girl?

a. Father

b. Brother in law

c. Father-in-law

d. Husband

4. X a partner in the firm XYZ Co. wants to open a Bank account in the firm‟s name. It will require

signatures of:

a. All partners

b. Any one of the partner

c. Managing partner only

d. Sleeping partner not required

5. Public limited companies should have minimum shareholders, before Opening Bank account.

a. 11

b. 7

c. 5

d. 15

6. If the beneficiary is government then the Expiry of guarantee is governed by the „law of

limitation‟ ranging from 3 years to

a. 15 years

b. 30 years

c. 20 years

d. 10 years

7. Charge created on LIC Policy is

a. Lien

b. Hypothecation

c. Pledge

d. Assignment

8. The device that combines the parallel input data into single serial output data is known as

a. Switcher

b. Multiplexer

c. Encoder

d. Front end processor

9. In market skimming pricing strategy:

a. Initially price is lower and then it is increased

b. Initial price is high and is maintained high

c. Initial price is low and is maintained low

d. Initially price is higher and then it is reduced

10. The marketing personnel need information _________intervals.

a. At yearly

b. At quarterly

c. At monthly

d. On a continuous basis and regular

Part Two:

1. Discuss the role of RBI in Indian Banking sector.

2. Write short notes on:

3. Write short notes on:

a. Repo Rate

b. Reverse Repo Rate.

a. Bank Lien

b. Right of set off

4. What is cash credit means?

Section B: Caselets (40 marks)

Caselet 1

Questions:

1. How does the winner in such an auction become the loser due to the „winner curse‟?

2. Explain the role of primary dealers in the money market.

Caselet 2

Questions:

1. Discuss the mechanism of forfeiting and the role played by banks in forfeiting transactions.

2. How does forfeiting differ from factoring?

Section C: Applied Theory (30 marks)

1. What are the various approaches to capital adequacy? Explain Basel II norms and minimum

capital requirements in Basel II norms.

2. What do you mean by non Performing Assets (NPA)? How have NPAs affected financial health

of Indian commercial banks?
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Financial Services

Multiple Choices:

1. NBFS stands for ___________

2. ALCO is a decision making unit responsible for balance sheet planning from risk return

perspective. (T/F)

3. A contract of „Indemnity‟ is one whereby:

4. The transaction between the lessor and the lessee being a demand sale is called__________

5. Which of the following is comes under mutual funds?

a. A person tries to use the other‟s property

b. A person promises to save the other‟s property from loss caused.

c. A person tries to trick the property of other for some other person.

d. None

a. First sale

b. Second sale

c. Third sale

d. Fourth sale

Open-end funds

Closed-end funds

Both (a) & (b)

None

6. Concept of leasing involves:

a. Lessor

b. Lessee

c. None

d. All

7. CRISIL stands for____________

8. ____________are issued by the government for period ranging from 14 days to 364 days

through regular auctions.

a. Treasury Bills

b. Commercial Papers

c. Call Money Market

d. None

9. The practice of discounting accommodation bills is known as _____________

10. HUDCO stands for _____________

Part Two:

1. Explain about SEBI guidelines to merchant bankers.

2. List the different types of Factoring.

3. Write a short note on venture capital in India.

4. Write a short note on Depositories.

END OF SECTION A

Caselet 1

Required The CFO of Sunlight Industries seeks your advice as a financial consultants on the

alternative proposals. What advice would you give? Why? Calculations can be upto one digit only.

Caselet 2

Assume that the two firms are in the process of negotiating a merger through an exchange of equity

shares. You have been asked to assist in establishing equitable exchange terms, and are required to:

(i) Decompose the share prices of both the companies into EPS and P/E components, and also segregate

their EPS figures into return on equity (ROE) and book value of intrinsic value per share (BVPS)

components.

(ii) Estimate future EPS growth rates for each firm.

(iii)Based on expected operating synergies, A Ltd estimates that the intrinsic value of T‟s equity share

would be Rs 20 per share on its acquisition. You are required to develop a range of justifiable equity

share exchange ratios that can be offered by A Ltd‟s shareholders. Based on your analysis in parts (i)

and (ii), would you expect the negotiated terms to be closer to the upper, or the lower exchange ratio

limits? Why?

(iv) Calculate the post-merger EPS based on an exchange ratio of 0.4 : 1 being offered by A Ltd. Indicate

the immediate EPS accretion or dilution, if any, that will occur for each group of shareholders.

(v) Based on a 0.4 :1 exchange ratio, and assuming that A‟s pre-merger P/E ratio will continue after the

merger, estimate the post-merger market price. Show the resulting accretion or dilution in pre-merger

market prices.

END OF SECTION B

1. What do you mean by money market? Discuss money market instruments in detail.

2. What is leasing? Explain about the advantages and disadvantages of lease finance.

 

 

 
                                                  International Business Management

Multiple choices:

1. What is the series consideration for strategy implementation?

a. Strategic orientation

b. Location

c. Dimensions

d. Both (a) & (b)

2. The major activity in global marketing is:

a. Pricing policies

b. Product lines

c. Market assessment

d. All of the above

3. The third „P‟ in the international marketing mix is:

a. Product

b. Price

c. Promotion

d. Place

4. The European Economic Community was established in____________

a. 1958

b. 1975

c. 1967

d. 1957

5. Environment Protection Act on______________

a. 1986

b. 1967

c. 1990

d. None of the above

6. People‟s attitude toward time depend on:

a. Language

b. Relationship

c. Culture

d. All of the above

7. Culture necessitates adaption of :

a. Product

b. Price

c. Promotion

d. Place

8. The legal term for brand is:

a. Symbol

b. Name

c. Trade mark

d. All of the above

9. FDI flows are often a reflection of rivalry among firms in____________

a. Global market

b. Indian market

c. International market

d. None of the above

10. ISO certification is:

a. Expensive process

b. Elaborate process

c. Evaluative Process

d. Both (a) & (b)

Part Two:

1. What do understand by „Inward-oriented Policies‟?

2. What is „Factor Endowments Theory‟?

3. Explain the term „Totalitarianism‟.

4. Write about „Persistent Dumping‟.

Caselet 1
Questions:

1. Is gross domestic product per capita a useful indicator of International competitiveness in the EU?

2. Is it fair to point the blame for the EU‟s poor international competitiveness at inflexible labour

markets, regulated goods and services markets, and a general lack of competition? What

alternative explanations might be suggested?

Caselet 2

Questions:

1. What are some current issues Facing Peru? What is the climate for doing business in Peru today?

2. Would the bank be better off negotiating the loan in New York or in Lima? Why?

1. Imagine that you are the director of a major international lending institution supported by funds

from member countries. What one area in newly industrialized and developing economics would

be your priority for receiving development aid? Do you suspect that any member country will be

politically opposed to aid in this area? Why or Why not?

2. The principle problem in analysing different forms of export financing is the distribution of risks

between the exporter and the importer. Analyse the following export financing instruments in this

respect:

(a) Letter of Credit

(b) Cash in advance

(c) Draft

(d) Consignment

(e) Open Account

 

 

   Global Marketing Management

Part One:

1. All the ethnocentric orientations are collectively called______________

2. Which of the following comes under benefits of Global marketing?

a. Endurance

b. Sales Promotion

c. Diversification

d. All of the above

3. The Polycentric orientation is the opposite of ethnocentrism. (T/F)

4. NAFTA stands for____________

5. ______________refers to the ability of the product and the company from that of the competitors

a. Positioning

b. Differentiation

c. Customer value

d. None

6. CAT stands for _______________

7. Cave dwellers are______________

8. LIFO stands for life in fire option.(T/F)

9. Starbursts are _______________

10. _____________is an advantage over competitors gained by offering consumers greater value

Part Two:

1. What are the implications of tariffs in the Global Marketing?

2. Write a short note on “Diffusion Theory”.

3. Discuss the concept of competitive marketing strategies.

4. Discuss the importance of marketing mix.

END OF SECTION A

Caselet 1

1. What are the indicators of global competitiveness? Discuss the new tools to determine global

competitiveness.

Caselet 2

1. Discuss the provisions of world Trade Organization (WTO). What are implications of WTO,

agreements on international business?

1. By marketing in a foreign country must a firm automatically utilize geographic segmentation or

some other segmentation basis discuss.

2. Distinguish between direct and indirect selling channels. What are the advantages and

disadvantages of each?

 

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Safety Management

Multiple choices:

1. In the 5‟S to good housekeeping leading to cleaner, better & safety workplace, what is meant by SIESO?

a. Sort

b. Systematize

c. Sweep

d. Sanitize

2. When the car in front is about to turn the right than what step should be taken?

a. Overtake only on right

b. Overtaking on the left

c. Overtaking is not permissible

d. None of these

3. OSHA stands for_____________

a. Organizational Safety and Health Administration

b. Organizational Security and Health Application

c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

d. Occupational Safety and Health Advantage

4. Which of the following is not the visible cost of accident?

a. Loss of production

b. Medical cost

c. Legal cost

d. Overhead cost

5. BBS stands for_____________

6. PPE Stands for_________.

7. Which of the following is not come under the 5E‟s for accident prevention?

a. Engineering

b. Enforcement

c. Executing

d. Enforcement

8. Spoiled work, loss of prestige, funeral expenses are comes under which type of cost?

a. Visible

b. Invisible

c. Both a & b

d. None of these

9. Which of the following is the basic element of safety organization?

a. Assignment of responsibility

b. An accident record systems

c. Maintenance of safe working condition

d. All of the above

10. What is the full form of ABC in safety?

a. Always better control

b. Always be careful

c. Attitude behavior culture

d. None of the above

Part Two:

1. What are the 5E‟s for accident prevention?

2. Explain the advantages of training in safety?

3. List the basic prevention measures of industrial fire.

4. List the tips for road safety.

Caselet 1

Questions:

1. How could this “accident” have been avoided? How would you recommend preventing occurrence of a

similar accident in the future?

Caselet 2

Question:

1. What do you think the management representative should do? Should this union demand be granted?

1. Explain the “Do‟s” and “Don‟ts” of electrical safety?

2. Define „Hazard‟. Explain types of „Industrial hazard‟?
Industrial Safety Management
Multiple choices:

1. _____________is one of the weapons in the creative armoury available to mangers.

2. Which acid was the by-product of caustic soda manufacturing plant?

3. Which Step cannot be taken to isolate or block energy?

4. ____________are the outer particles of an atom they contain a negative charge.

5. This plan should provide for the orderly and phased shutdown of an installation.

6. MSDS stands for:-

a. Brainstorming

b. Hazard

c. Phosgene

d. Hazop

a. Folic acid

b. Hydrochloric acid

c. Sulphuric acid

d. Nitric acid

a. Block machine parts against motion that might result from gravity.

b. Disconnect or shutdown engines or motors that power mechanical systems.

c. Discharge capacitors by grounding.

d. De-energize electrical circuits by disconnecting power source from the circuit.

a. Electric current

b. Electricity

c. Electron

d. None of these

a. Off-site emergency plan

b. On-site emergency plan

c. Safety Plan

d. Health Plan

a. Material Safety Data Sheet

b. Medical Safety Data Sheet

c. Material Solution Data Sheet

d. Material Security Data Sheet

7. The Xanthate is dissolved in dilute sodium hydroxide & the resulting solution is the viscous orange

liquid known as

a. Spinning

b. Shredding

c. Viscose

d. Aging

8. ____________is used as a temporary care measure to provide the circulation of some oxygenated

blood to the brain.

a. CPR

b. ECC

c. NEC

d. CFR

9. The SWL of a wire rope can be calculated by dividing

10. Which gas is not used for the purpose of ventilation?

Factor of safety

a.

Ultimate Strengt ????

b.

Catalogue breaking load

c.

factor of safety

d. w

A

2 cos

2

Ultimate breaking strengt ????

e.

Maximum permissible safe load

a. Carbon-di-oxide

b. Oxygen

c. Nitrogen

d. Hydrogen

Part Two

1. Describe the safety precautions in storing gas cylinders.

2. Write the advantages and disadvantages of „Electric Forks‟.

3. Explain the overview of the „Employer Safety Program‟?

4. What are the stages of „Brainstorming‟?

Caselet 1

Question:

1. What are your recommendations for prevention from these kinds of incidents?

Caselet 2

1. Prepare an investigation report on the basis of above case and suggest some points for prevention.

1. Describe the „Investigation Report‟ based on the “Layered Method”.

2. Explain the method of „Occupational Safety and Health Training‟?

 

 

 

 

Pharmaceutical Marketing 

 

 

Multiple Choices:

 

1. What is the full form of „IPR‟?

 

1. Intellectual property rights

 

1. Intellectual patent rights

 

1. Intellectual process rights

 

1. International patent rights

 

2. The environment that poses tremendous opportunities for new products and services to alert

 

marketer is an _________ environment.

 

1. Ecological

 

1. Social

 

1. Technological

 

1. Competitive

 

3. Arrange these market opportunities analysis step by step:

 

1. Evaluate new opportunities in new segments

 

1. Build on your strengths

 

iii. Explore new market opportunities

 

1. Analyze your existing markets

 

1. i, ii,iii,iv

 

1. ii,iv,i,iii

 

1. iv,ii,iii,i

 

1. i,iii,iv,ii

 

4. Marketing virtually the same product with two or more brand names is a strategy of_______

 

1. Family brand strategy

 

1. Multiple brand strategy

 

1. Individual brand

 

1. Private brand

 

5. The pricing that deals with the judgmental or subjective elements of pricing is a_______

 

1. Cost-based pricing

 

1. Petition based pricing

 

1. Market based pricing

 

1. Demand based pricing

 

6. Which of the following is not a member of distribution channel?

 

1. The Physician

 

1. Manufacturer

 

1. The consumer

 

1. The transporter

 

7. Arrange the communication process in order:

 

1. Medium

 

1. Feedback

 

iii. Sender

 

1. Receiver

 

1. Message

 

1. a) ii,iv,v,i,iii

 

1. b) iii,v,i,iv,ii

 

1. c) iv,i,iii,v,ii

 

1. d) iii,ii,iv,i,v

 

8. The strategy used to create a demand for a product within a channel of distribution by appealing

 

directly to the consumer is a________

 

1. Pull strategy

 

1. Push strategy

 

1. Combination strategy

 

1. Competitive strategy

 

9. Toward off a competitive threat or to create an entry barrier, some companies from different

 

power blocks may temporarily form a cartel it is termed as_______

 

1. Franchise power

 

1. Integration power

 

1. Niche power

 

1. Coalition power

 

10. Which of the following „R‟ is not a part of good management principle?

 

1. Resources

 

1. Recognition

 

1. Responsibility

 

1. Reward

 

Part Two:

 

1. Define the term “Marketing Communication”.

 

2. Differentiate between „Product Item‟ and „Product Mix‟.

 

3. Differentiate between „Cost Based Pricing‟ and „Demand Based Pricing‟.

 

4. Describe “Boston Matrix”.

 

 

Caselet 1

 

1. If you were in the position of Swami, what would have been your decision? Justify keeping

 

qualitative aspects in mind.

 

2. Discuss the various other factors, which should be considered while making capital investment

 

decision.

 

Caselet 2

 

 

1. Explain the terms in the context of the “Pharmaceutical Marketing” :

 

1. Brand

 

1. Trademarks

 

1. Product line

 

2. Explain the important point that should be considered, while packaging

 

Also list the various dimensions of pharmaceutical market.

 

 

 

 

Pharmaceuticals Industrial Management

 

Multiple Choices:

 

1. Which of the following not the principle of co-„ordination?

 

1. Principle of early beginning

 

1. Principle of continuity

 

1. Principle of time

 

1. Principle of reciprocity

 

2. Oral communication includes__________

 

3. Enthusiasm, co-operation, tact and skillful handling come under:

 

4. Which of the following is the demerit of formal communication?

 

5. Arrange the following into decision making process__________

 

1. Lecture

 

1. Poster

 

1. Union publication

 

1. Complaint procedure

 

1. Intellectual quality

 

1. Character quality

 

1. Psychological quality

 

1. Physical quality

 

1. a) Decay in accuracy

 

1. b) Time consuming

 

1. c) It is temporary

 

1. d) Fairly unsuitable

 

1. Conception

 

1. Investigation

 

iii. Perception

 

1. Selection

 

1. a) iv,i,iii, ii

 

1. b) ii,iv iii,i

 

1. c) iv,i,iii,ii

 

1. d) iii,i,ii, iv

 

6. FIFO stands for _______________.

 

7. Record of all item of material and good in the store is recorded in which document?

 

1. a) Store ledger

 

1. b) Bin card

 

1. c) Both a & b

 

1. d) None of these

 

8. VED stands for ______________.

 

9. In the EOQ formula „C‟ is stand for-

 

1. a) Annual consumption

 

1. b) Cost of per unit of material

 

1. c) Cost per order

 

1. d) Storage

 

10. WTO stands for ________________.

 

Part Two:

 

1. What is questionnaire? Explain rules or guidelines for designing a good questionnaire?

 

2. Define drug store management? „Discuss the arrangements of drugs in drug store?

 

3. Name the various steps in the selection of a pharmacist?

 

4. What are the purposes of training given to a pharmacist?

 

 

Caselet 1

 

Questions:

 

1. Briefly explain the concept of CRM & SFA systems.

 

2. State the features of a Good SFA system.

 

3. Write down some CRM/SFA systems which are available in the market for Pharmaceutical

 

Industry.

 

4. What are the benefits of CRM system?

 

Caselet 2

 

 

1. Define „Pharmaceutical marketing? Explain objectives and importance of pharmaceutical

 

marketing.

 

2. Define „Advertising‟? What are the advantages and disadvantages of advertising in

 

pharmaceutical marketing?

 

 

 

                                                 Distribution & Logistics Management

 

 

Multiple Choices:

1. It deals with the movement of finished goods from the last point of production to the point of

 

consumption.

 

1. Marketing Channel Management

 

1. Logistics Management

 

1. Boundaries

 

1. Relationships

 

2. Which conflict is one of the major bottleneck in the development & maintenance of partnering

 

channel relationship

 

1. Channel conflict

 

1. Management conflict

 

1. Logistics conflict

 

1. Distribution conflict

 

3. The phase of externally integrated business function era (1990s onwards) is recognized as the era

 

of

 

1. Logistics Management

 

1. Human Resource Management

 

1. Financial Management

 

1. Supply Chain Management

 

4. ___________ may be conducted from time-to-time or at least once in a year to know about

 

change in the expectation levels & actual performance

 

1. Customer Service Monitoring cell

 

1. Formal Customer Satisfaction Survey

 

1. Customer Conference

 

1. Customer Feedback System

 

5. The firm‟s incomplete or inaccurate knowledge of customer‟s service expectations is known as

 

1. Market Information Gap

 

1. Service Standards Gap

 

1. Service Performance Gap

 

1. Internal Communication Gap

 

IIBM Institute of Business Management

 

Examination Paper of Logistics Management

 

6. This gap exist between the present level of customer service offered and the corporate vision

 

about customer service

 

1. Gap 1

 

1. Gap 2

 

1. Gap 3

 

1. Gap 4

 

7. This stock refers to window display of an inventory in order to stimulate demand and act as a

 

silent salesman

 

1. Decoupling stock

 

1. Psychic stock

 

1. Pipeline stock

 

1. None

 

8. This stock is also known as cycle or lot size stock

 

1. Working stock

 

1. Safety stock

 

1. Anticipation stock

 

1. None

 

9. In this system manufacturer is given the responsibility for monitoring & controlling inventory

 

levels at the retail store level

 

1. Quick Response

 

1. Continuous Replenishment

 

1. Vendor-managed Inventory

 

1. Customer Relationship

 

10. This mode of transport is a very significant one but with a very restricted scope. It is used

 

primarily for the shipment of liquid & gas

 

1. Airways

 

1. Railways

 

1. Pipelines

 

1. Seaways

 

Part Two:

 

1. What is Containerization and also mention the main features of Containerization.

 

2. What is Third Party Logistics?

 

3. Differentiate between Public & Private Warehouse.

 

4. What is Logistics Information System?

 

 

Caselete 1

 

Questions:

 

1. Based on information for the current years, is Kansas City the best location for a warehouse? If

 

not, what are the coordinates for a better location>? What cost improvement can be expected

 

from the new location?

 

2. If by year 5 increases are expected of 25 percent in warehouse outbound transport rates and 15

 

percent in warehouse inbound rates, would your decision change about the warehouse

 

location?

 

 

 

 

 

                                                            Business Logistics

 

Multiple Choices:

 

1. This decision involves mode of selection, shipment size, routing & scheduling.

 

1. Inventory decision

 

1. Transport decision

 

1. Distribution decision

 

1. Facility location decision

 

2. This refers to the activities of gathering the information needed about the products & services

 

desired & formally requesting the products to be purchased.

 

1. Order preparation

 

1. Order transmittal

 

1. Observation

 

1. Order entry

 

3. A very valuable function for the TMS is to suggest the patterns for consolidating small shipments

 

into larger ones.

 

1. Mode selection

 

1. Routing

 

1. Scheduling

 

1. Freight Consolidation

 

4. This refers to transporting truck trailers on railroad flatcars, usually over longer distances than

 

trucks normally haul.

 

1. Water

 

1. Pipeline

 

1. Roadways

 

1. Trailers on Flatcars

 

5. An operating philosophy that is an alternative to the use of inventories for meeting the goal of

 

having the right goods at the right place at the right time.

 

1. Just-in-time

 

1. Kanban

 

1. MRP Mechanies

 

1. None

 

6. A buyer may wish to negotiate the best possible price but not take delivery of the full purchase

 

amount at one time.

 

1. Fixed sourcing

 

1. Contract buying

 

1. Flexible sourcing

 

1. Deal buying

 

7. Transportation rate structure, especially rate breaks, influence the use of storage facilities is

 

known as___________

 

1. Storage function

 

1. Holding

 

1. Consolidation

 

1. Break-bulk

 

8. These warehouses are the most common type which handle a broad range of merchandise.

 

1. Household warehouses

 

1. Miniwarehouses

 

1. Bulk storage warehouses

 

1. General merchandise warehouses

 

9. ___________ refers to the time that goods remain in the transportation equipment during

 

delivery.

 

1. Leased space

 

1. Storage in transit

 

1. Load unitization

 

1. Space layout

 

10. It refers to the selection of more than one order on a single pass through the stock.

 

1. Zoning

 

1. Batching

 

1. Sequencing

 

1. Modified area system

 

Part Two:

 

1. What is Bid-Rent Curves?

 

2. What is Mixed Integer linear Programming?

 

3. Differentiate between Lumpy and Regular Demand.

 

4. Write a short note on „Order Transmittal‟.

 

 

Caselete 1

 

Questions:

 

1. Develop a forecasting procedure for this service station. Why did you select this method?

 

2. How should promotions, holidays, or other such periods where fuel usage rates deviate form

 

normal patterns be handled in the forecast?

 

Caselete 2

 

Questions:

 

1. What replenishment order size, to the nearest 50 units, should Walter place, given the

 

manufacturer‟s noninclusive pricing policy?

 

2. Should Walter change his replenishment order size if the manufacture‟s pricing policy were one

 

where the price in each quantities break includes all units purchased?

 

END OF SECTION B

 

1. What is a heuristic Method? How are they useful in solving warehouse location problem?

 

2. What is a “Virtual Inventory”? What is the planning problem associated with such inventories?

 

3. Decision makers such as truck dispatchers, can go a long way toward developing good truck routes &

 

schedule by applying guideline principles. What are those principles for good Routing & Scheduling?

 

 
Project Management

 

1. During _________formal tools and techniques were developed to help and manage largecomplex projects.

   2. PERT stands for:

   3. The most basic model of any Operating System is:

   4. Overall complexity =

   5. Relevant areas of the APM body of knowledge are:

   a. Program Evaluation and Reverse Technique

   b. Progress Evaluation and Review Technique

   c. Program Evaluation and Review Technique

   d. None of the above

   a. Project Model

   b. Input-output model

   c. Output-input model

   d. None of the above

   a. Organizational complexity*resource complexity*technical complexity

   b. Organizational complexity+technical complexity-resource complexity

   c. Technical complexity+resource complexity/organizational complexity

   d. Organizational complexity*resource complexity/technical complexity

   a. Quality Management

   b. Budgeting and cost Management

   c. Project Cost Management

   d. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’

   6. Costs associated with the planning process include:

   7. CPA stands for:

   a. Planer’s tools

   b. Opportunity cost

   c. Planned labour and associated expenses

   d. All of the above

   a. Critical Path Analysis

   b. Common Path Analysis

   c. Critical Path Algorithm

   d. Common Problem Analysis

   8. The project duration with the normal activity time is ____days.

   9. The nature of the work organization is important as it:

   a. Defines responsibility and authority

   b. Outlines reporting arrangements

   c. Determines the management overhead

   d. All of the above

   10. Matrix Management was invented by

   d. Frederick Taylor

2. Define ‘Cost Estimating Techniques’.2. Write a note on ‘Critical Path Analysis’.3. Differentiate between General Management and Project Management.

   4. What is ‘Team Life Cycle’?

Caselet 1

1. What further methods could have been used to generate ideas for the identification part of the risk

2. What should happen as the project progresses to manage risk?

Caselet 2

1. Identify the steps the firm took in this project. How did this contribute to the success?

2. How might the main adverse effects be identified?

1. What is the role of strategy in Project Management?

2. Identify the different roles that cost, price and profit can play in determining project costs.

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Project Management in IT

1. The knowledge areas of Project Management Process Group are:a. Planning and Initiatingb. Executing and Closing

   c. Monitoring and Controlling

   d. All of the above

   2. To create a successful project, a project manager must consider:

   d. All of the above

   3. Which one of the following is not involved in the top ten skills or competencies of an effective

   d. Technical skills

   4. Another name of a phase exit is a _______ point.

   5. Which process group includes activities from each of the nine knowledge areas?

   6. The project team works together to create the ______.

   a. Scope statement

   c. WBS dictionary

   d. Work package

   7. __________ is a network diagramming technique used to predict total project duration.

   c. Critical Path Method

   8. Which of the following is not a key output of project cost management:

   a. A cost estimate

   b. A cost management plan

   c. A cost baseline

   d. None of the above

   9. CMMI Stands for:

   a. Capability Maturity Model Integration

   b. Complex Maturity Model Integration

   c. Common Maturity Model Information

   d. Capability Maturity Model Information

   10. A proposal evaluation sheet is an example of:

   c. Earned value analysis

   d. Weighted scoring model

2. Define Product Life Cycle.2. What is Project Integration Model?

   3. Write a note on Gantt charts.

   4. What is Project Quality Management?

   Caselet 1

   1. What according to you are the factors that can hamper the profit growth related with the

   2. Mention some strategies to further improve the project’s turnover.

   Caselet 2

   1. According to you what are the skills that needed for the project management of an organization?

   2. How the six sigma project became a helpful tool in very sophisticated kind of project

   1. What is cost? What is the importance of Project cost Management and explain basic principles of

   Cost Management.

   2. Define the following:

   a. Resource Histograms

   b. Project Communication Management

 

 

Total Quality Management

1. In Total Quality Management, what does the ‘Quality’ word mean?
   a) Degree of excellence a product or service
   b) Degree of performance
   c) Degree of work`
   d) Strength of the company
   2. Quality can be quantified as :
   a) Q = P % E
   b) Q = P / E
   c) Q = P * E
   d) None
   Where P = Performance, and E = Expectations
   3. What could be the dimension of Quality?
   a) Conformance
   b) Durability
   c) Aesthetics
   d) All above
   4. An effective TQM program is often referred to as :
   a) Listening to the voice of consumers
   b) Listening to the voice of customers
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None5. The most important consideration of an effective TQM is
   a) Maximize profit
   b) Provide high quality
   c) Customer satisfaction
   d) Minimize expenses
   6. Who said this, “Even if you’re on the right track, you’ll get run over if you just sit there.”
   a) Will Rogers
   b) Shewhart
   c) Joseph M. Juran
   d) Phillip B. Crosby
   7. “……………….” is we, not me; mission, not my show; vision, not division; and community,
   Not domicile.”
   a) Democracy
   b) Membership
   c) Management
   d) Leadership
   8. Knowledge is what to do; the desire is the motivation or wants to do; and the skill is the…..
   a) When to do?
   b) How to do?
   c) What to do
   d) None
   9. A body of principles or standards of human conduct that govern the behavior of individuals &
   organizations.
   a) Synergy
   b) Ethics
   c) Conduct
   d) Nature
   10. Quality is judged by
   a) Manager
   b) Director
   c) Government
   d) Customers
   11. A desired future stage of an organization is
   a) Policies
   b) Mission
   c) Value
   d) Vision12. A customer could be
   a) Internal
   b) External
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None
   13. A particular tool for obtaining opinions & perceptions about organizations its products &
   services.
   a) Customer questionnaire
   b) Personal interview
   c) Telephonic interview
   d) All above
   14. Clients are the people for whom the company doing the survey, and customers are the ones
   a) Who checks the product or services
   b) Who use the product or services
   c) Who takes the information about product
   d) None
   15. 90% of all customers contact comes through an organization’s
   a) Front – line employees
   b) Back – line employees
   c) Manager
   d) Director
   16. The connection between customers satisfaction and the bottom line is
   a) Customer interest
   b) Customer retention
   c) Customer requirement
   d) None
   17. A useful tool which provides information to improve processes an establish realistic goals
   a) SERVQUAL
   b) Quality function deployment
   c) Gap analysis
   d) None
   18. Who said, “Customer don’t buy products, they buy result.”
   a) Joseph J. Juran
   b) Phillip B. Crosby
   c) Peter Drucker
   d) Will Rogers

   19. A document that defines the team’s mission, boundaries, the background of the problem, team’s
   authority, duties and resources.
   a) Sponsor
   b) Team charter
   c) Team manager
   d) Team leader
   20. When one person proposes a decision and another agrees, we have the
   a) Non-decision
   b) Minority rule decision
   c) Unilateral decision
   d) Handclasp decision
   21. Item that includes a process, such as brainstorming, affinity diagram, discussion, the presenters
   and times guidelines is
   a) Company’s logo
   b) Company’s Name
   c) An agenda
   d) Moto
   22. The most difficult stage as members start to realize the amount of works that lies ahead is
   a) Forming
   b) Worming
   c) Performing
   d) Storming
   23. The S.T.A.R. = ‘Suggestions’, ‘Team’, ‘Actions’, ‘…………..’.
   a) Response
   b) Reliability
   c) Results
   d) None
   24. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive
   world is
   a) Change
   b) Repair
   c) Revenue
   d) None
   25. The planning component of process involvement begins with
   a) Internal customers
   b) External customers
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None

   26. Which problem occurs, when a structured system having standardized inputs, processes, and
   outputs is performing unacceptably from the user’s view point?
   a) Unstructured problems
   b) Product design problems
   c) Compliance problems
   d) Process design problems
   27. PDSA stands for
   a) Plan – Do – Study – Act
   b) Process Development Structured Analysis
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None
   28. Kaizen improvement focuses on which principle to produce only the units in the right quantities,
   at the right time, and with the right resources.
   a) Do – it – fast
   b) Just – in –time
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None
   29. The Greek symbol for the statistical measurement of dispersion called standard deviation
   a) α
   b) β
   c) λ
   d) σ
   30. Competency levels of six sigma individuals use the Karate designations of
   a) Green Belt
   b) Black Belt
   c) Master Black Belt
   d) All above
   31. The key element to a partnering relationship is
   a) Long – term commitment
   b) Trust
   c) Shared vision
   d) All above
   32. Sourcing, which is the use of two or more suppliers for an item is
   a) Sole sourcing
   b) Multiple sourcing
   c) Single sourcing
   d) None

   33. The fourth and final phase, i.e., identity check occurs
   a) When the customers perform identity checks
   b) When the suppliers perform identity checks
   c) When both the customers & suppliers perform identity checks
   d) None
   34. A supplier rating system is based on
   a) Quality
   b) Delivery
   c) Service
   d) All above
   35. The score of a supplier can be calculated as
   a) Performance matrix * price index
   b) Target price * actual price
   c) Performance matrix * actual price
   d) None
   36. OEMs must maintain supply chain development through
   a) Zero defects
   b) 100 % on time delivery
   c) A process for continuous improvement
   d) All above
   37. A technique of ‘Performing Measure Presentation’ benchmarks the process & shows favorable &
   unfavorable trends in the measure
   a) Control chart
   b) Time service graph
   c) Capability index
   d) Cost of poor quality
   38. Costs can generally be considered the cost incurred for the inspection and/or test of purchased
   suppliers or service to determine acceptability for use.
   a) Operations appraisal costs
   b) External appraisal costs
   c) Miscellaneous quality evaluations
   d) Purchasing appraisal costs
   39. Purchasing failure cost are incurred due to
   a) Defected item rejects
   b) Purchased item rejects
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None

   40. The efficiency of a business is measured in terms of
   a) Rupees
   b) Paisa
   c) Dollars
   d) Pound
   41. An annual award to recognize U.S. organizations for performance excellence
   a) Golden Peacock Award
   b) IMC Ramakrishna Bajaj National Award
   c) Malcolm Baldrige National Award
   d) None
   42. In the implementation of a quality cost program, to determine if the program can be beneficial to
   the organization is
   a) Last step
   b) First step
   c) Second step
   d) None
   43. An increasingly popular tool, used extensively by both manufacturing & service organizations,
   including Xerox, AT&T, Motorola, Ford & Toyota to reach at a target point
   a) SERQUAL
   b) Benchmarking
   c) QFD
   d) QC
   44. When deciding what to benchmark, it is best to begin by thinking about the
   a) Mission and vision
   b) Vision and critical success factors
   c) Vision
   d) Mission and critical success factors
   45. Benchmarking can be
   a) Internal
   b) Competitive
   c) Process
   d) All above
   46. Technique of conducting original research is
   a) Questionnaires
   b) Site visits
   c) Focus on groups
   d) All above

   47. Benchmarking is waste of time, if
   a) Change does not occur as a result
   b) Change occurs a result
   c) There is no achievement
   d) Can’t say
   48. E – learning is offered in a variety of formats such as
   a) CD – ROM based
   b) LAN based
   c) Web based
   d) All above
   49. The International Organization for Standardizations (ISO) was founded in Geneva, Switzerland,
   in
   a) 1952
   b) 1948
   c) 1961
   d) 1946
   50. The current quality system is
   a) AS9100
   b) ISO / TS 16949
   c) TL 9000
   d) All above
   51. The supply chain is defined as
   a) Suppliers → Organization → Customers
   b) Organization → Suppliers → Customers
   c) Suppliers → Customers → Organization
   d) Organization → Customers → Suppliers
   52. Which is not a step of ‘Implementation’ of a Quality Management System?
   a) Top Management Commitment
   b) Appoint an implementation team
   c) Writing the documents
   d) Appoint the management representatives
   53. Technical committee 207 (TC 207) is formed by
   a) RAB
   b) SAGE
   c) ASQ
   d) None

   54. What is the global benefit of environmental management system?
   a) Facilitate & remove trade barriers
   b) Improve environmental performance of planet earth
   c) Build consensus
   d) All above
   55. ‘Closely knit’ describes
   a) TNC’s eternal relationship
   b) TNC’s internal relationship
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None
   56. ………………, a golf equipment manufacturer recently was certified to both ISO 9000 & ISO
   14000.
   a) Escorts
   b) Hyundai
   c) Ping
   d) Tata
   57. To ensure that EMS conforms to plans & is being properly implemented & maintained, is the
   purpose of
   a) Records
   b) EMS Audit
   c) Monitoring & Measuring
   d) Nonconformance & Corrective
   58. The Quality Function Deployment uses, to express information
   a) Algebric values
   b) Numeric values
   c) Alphanumeric values
   d) None
   59. Quality Function deployment is a planning tool used to
   a) Maximizing the profit
   b) Minimizing the expenses
   c) Fulfill customer expectations
   d) Making goodwill
   60. Which source of customers describes their expectations?
   a) Voice of customers
   b) Actions of customers
   c) Nature of customers

   61. Which method is well suited for gathering a large amount of data?
   a) Interrelationship diagram
   b) Tree diagrams
   c) Cause – and – Effect diagrams
   d) All above
   62. The primary planning tool used in QFD is
   a) QC
   b) Gap Analysis
   c) Benchmarking
   d) HOQ
   63. The absolute weight is calculated by
   a) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)*(sales points)
   b) AW = (Importance to customer)*(scale up factor)
   c) AW = (scale up factor)*(sales points)
   d) None
   64. Why the term ‘Sequential Engineering’ is used?
   a) To describe the profit
   b) To describe the process
   c) To describe the performance
   d) To describe the quality
   65. The benefit of Quality by Design techniques is
   a) Faster production development
   b) Better quality
   c) Less work in progress
   d) All above
   66. Tools which are mostly used in quality be design technique
   a) CAD
   b) CAM
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None
   67. A software which provides a means for individuals to communicate their opinions within a group
   in a structured & creative manner is
   a) Enterprise resource planning software
   b) Product data management software
   c) Electronic meeting software
   d) None

   68. The finite element analysis software packages are3 widely regarded as the most powerful tool
   available for
   a) A design engineer
   b) Documentation
   c) Production
   d) All above
   69. FMEA. Is an analytical technique to identify foreseeable failure modes of a product or process &
   plan for their elimination stands for
   a) Failure Modification & Effect Analysis
   b) Foreign Money Exchange and Analysis
   c) Failure Mode & Effect Analysis
   d) None
   70. The type of FMEA is
   a) Design FMEA
   b) Process FMEA
   c) Equipment FMEA
   d) All above
   71. How many stages of FMEA?
   a) 8
   b) 6
   c) 4
   d) 3
   72. The effective of failure as perceived by the customer are called
   a) Minor effect(s) of failure
   b) Potential effect(s) of failure
   c) High effe4ct(s) of failure
   d) All above
   73. Which section of the document is a relative of the assessment of the ability of the design control
   to detect either a potential cause or the subsequent failure mode before the component, sub
   system, or system is completed for production.
   a) Occurrence(O)
   b) Classification (CLASS)
   c) Detection (D)
   d) Security (S)
   74. The concept ‘Caveat Emptor’, that resulted from Adam Smith’s “invisible Hand” theory of
   commercial regulation, means
   a) Let the buyers beware
   b) Let the seller beware

   c) Let the consumer beware
   d) Let the government beware
   75. The first requirement of an expert technical witness is to be ……………………… in the area of
   testimony.
   a) Non – technical
   b) Perfect
   c) Technically competent
   d) Knowledgeable
   76. Technique, which is a product safety design technique is
   a) Fault free analysis
   b) Fail – safe concepts
   c) Coded identifications for traceability
   d) All above
   77. If the product is referred to as “safe” & a person is injured that action establishes that the product
   is
   a) Good
   b) Best
   c) Defective
   d) Not safe
   78. A communication between market place and the organization concerning the performance of the
   product is
   a) A complaint
   b) A claim
   c) Both (a) & (b)
   d) None
   79. An adequate prevention program can substantially reduce the risk of damaging litigation. This
   statement is as same as proverb
   a) A ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure
   b) Barking dogs seldom bite
   c) Old is gold
   d) Two birds with single stone
   80. The goal of TPM is
   a) Maintaining & improving equipment capacity
   b) Maintaining equipment for life
   c) Encouraging input from all employees
   d) All above

   81. Operating time can be calculated as
   a) T = P + D
   b) T = D – P
   c) T = P – D
   d) T = P * D
   Where P = Planned operating time, D = Downtime
   82. A tool, which could be a key to finding the root cause of a problem by focusing on the process
   rather than on people is
   a) Brain storming
   b) Why Why tool
   c) CAM
   d) Tree Diagram
   83. A tool, which is used to reduce any broad objective into increasing levels of details in order to
   achieve the objective is
   a) Matrix Diagram
   b) Tree Diagram
   c) Brain storming
   d) Why Why tool
   84. Prioritization matrices based on weighted criteria using a combination of
   a) Tree & Matrix Diagram
   b) Tree & Affinity Diagram
   c) Affinity & Matrix Diagram
   d) Brainstorming & Why Why Tool
   85. The tool which can be used in a wide variety of situations and are simple to use by individuals
   and / or teams is
   a) Why Why tool
   b) Forced Field Analysis
   c) Nominal Group Technique
   d) All above
   86. The activity network diagram is also known as
   a) PERT
   b) CPM
   c) Arrow diagram
   d) All above
   87. PDPC stands for
   a) Process Decision Program Chart
   b) Practice Decision Program Chart
   c) Process Development
   d) Path Decision Process Chart

   88. A Pareto diagram is a
   a) Ending Process
   b) Critical Process
   c) Never Ending Process
   d) Easy Process
   89. Diagrams, which are used to investigate either a “bad” effect and to take action to correct the
   cause that are effe4ct & to learn those causes that are responsible
   a) Pareto diagrams
   b) Tree diagrams
   c) PERT diagrams
   d) Cause & Effect diagrams
   90. Which is the first “statistical” SPC technique?
   a) Histogram
   b) Ungrouped Data
   c) Check Sheets
   d) None
   91. An arrangement of raw numerical data in ascending or descending order of magnitude is
   a) Structure
   b) Link List
   c) Queue
   d) Array
   92. Statistics is defined as the science that deals with
   a) Collection
   b) Tabulation
   c) Presentation
   d) All above
   93. Which tool of statistics describes how the data are spread out or scattered on which each side of
   central value?
   a) Measures of dispersion
   b) Forced field analysis
   c) Nominal group technique
   d) Tree diagram
   94. Experimental design can be used to
   a) Improve a process by increasing its performance and
   Eliminate troubles
   b) Identify the variables to control the process
   c) Improve an existing product or develop a new product
   d) All above

   95. A statistical decision making process in which inferences are made about the population from a
   sample is
   a) Hypothesis Testing
   b) Orthogonal Design
   c) t- reference Distribution
   d) None
   96. What does the word ‘Orthogonal’ mean?
   a) The final product is experimented
   b) The design of the actual product is based
   c) The experimental design is balanced
   d) None
   97. In any statistical study, analysis & calculations yield a single point or value, which is called a
   a) Point estimate
   b) Analytical point
   c) Full factor
   d) None
   98. Which is a stage of product development?
   a) Process design
   b) Product design
   c) Production
   d) All above
   99. Which is the fundamental part of the Taguchi approach?
   a) Iron casting
   b) Grill
   c) Parameter design
   d) Confirmation run
   100. An ongoing process that must occur if an organization is to continue to exist in the competitive
   world is called
   a) Change
   b) Renewal
   c) Enhancement
   d) None

 

 

Total Quality Management
Multiple Choices:
1. If the amount of energy available for the intended function be ‘a’ and the amount of energy
wasted be ‘b’ then Signal to noise ratio will be:
a. a/b
b. (a-b)/b
c. b/a
d. (a+b)/b
2. The number of orthogonal arrays added by Taguchi to the original work of Sir R A Fischer, was:
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 4
3. If the α for each t test be 0.2 then for 4 ‘t’ tests the probability of a correct decision will be:
a. 0.0008
b. 0.0016
c. 0.0002
d. None of the above
4. This is not a rapid prototype technique.
a. Stereo lithography
b. Solid ground curing
c. Solid ground searching
d. None of the above
5. The multiplication of importance of customer, scale up facture and sales point is called:
a. Relative weight
b. Absolute weight
c. Weight of scale
d. Weight of sales
6. In documentation Pyramid all documentation moves from one level to next in:
a. Ascending order
b. Descending order

c. One down one up fashion
d. Two down one up fashion
7. The quality system other than ISO 9000 is:
a. PS 9000
b. CS 9000
c. AS 9000
d. LS 9000
8. In the 5 S methodology for workplace organization, ‘Seiton’ stands for:
a. Proper arrangement
b. Orderliness
c. Personal cleanliness
d. Discipline
9. The basic plan-do-study-act (PDSA) cycle was first developed by:
a. Deming
b. Shewhart
c. Juran
d. Fleming.
10. One of the best approach having three components, can be used for process improvement, is:
a. Loran trilogy
b. Turan trilogy
c. Sudan triology
d. Juran triology
Part Two:

1. Write a note on ‘Kano model’ of customer requirement.
   2. Define Herzberg’s two factor theory.
   3. Write a note on Pareto analysis.
   4. What do understand by Benchmarking?
   5. Define “Degree of freedom”.

 

1. Discuss the various labour troubles which compelled the company management and its Dutch
   parents to decide to wind up the Calcutta plant. What were the problems?
2. How would you apply the Phillips India policy to help other electronics companies in India to
   implement TQM?

 

1. What is the Top initiative in Siemens AG? Discuss it various aspects.
2. What are the Top eight initiatives for innovation in Siemens AG? Evaluate their impact on
   quality and TQM.
3. Mechanical products such as cars do break down. Cars often are serviced by the car dealer.
   How can a car dealer use the service department to enhance future car sales?
   2. Using trade journals, professional society magazines, periodicals, and your networking
   ability, identify two examples of quality by design success stories and explain their results.

 

 

 

Telecommunications Essentials
Multiple Choices:
1. This band transmits uplink around the 6GHz range & downlink around the 4GHz range.
a. C-Band
b. Ku-Band
c. Ka-Band
d. L-Band
2. On these trunks, traffic flows in both the incoming & outgoing directions.
a. DOD trunks
b. DID trunks
c. Two-way local exchange trunks
d. None of the above
3. As networks become more digitized, fewer conversions take place, and voice can be carried at a
higher quality over fewer flower bits per second.
a. PCM
b. ADPCM
c. DCSs
d. DLCs
4. _____________ is a standard for storage & retrieval of moving pictures & audio on storage
media.
a. MPEG-1
b. MPEG-2
c. MPEG-4
d. MPEG-7
5. It is an open standard for digital video transmission over cable that was defined by ETSI &
ratified in 1994.
a. DVB-H
b. DVB-T
c. DVB-C
d. DVB-S & DVB-S2

6. It is the oldest of DSL technologies & a symmetrical service, measuring that it provides equal
bandwidth in the both directions.
a. HDSL
b. SDSL
c. G. SHDSL
d. ADSL
7. It is the newest spread spectrum technique, and its main purpose is to resolve the problems.
a. CDMA
b. TDMA
c. OFDM
d. ADPCM
8. It is a new concept in multimedia mobile broadcasting service, converging broadcasting and
telecommunications.
a. DMB
b. OFDM
c. VF
d. None of the above
9. It is a Niche broadband wireless technology that at first appears to complete for market share with
mobile WiMax & Mobile-Fi.
a. HiperAccess
b. HiperMan
c. iBursrt
d. ETSI BRAN
10. In-FUSIO’s (www. Infusion.com) __________ is best known for its business model, which
supports a variety of revenue models, including pay-per-level and SMS high scores.
a. JavaME
b. BREW
c. EXEn
d. Mophun
Part Two:

1. State the protocols & implementations which are associated with Mesh Network.
   2. Write a short note on HFC Architecture and draw the topology of an HFC network.
   3. What is the IP multimedia system?
   4. What is Symmetric Encryptions?
   5. Briefly explain the major layers of IPT network taxonomy.
2. How does this case demonstrate the importance of data transmission rates in business? Does it
   imply that people in Japan are willing to accept lower data rates than people in the U.S.?
   2. Some people say that the Internet fosters globalization by providing world wide access to the
   Web. Discuss arguments for and against this statement.
3. Why might portable computing and desktop computing call for different types of microprocessors?
   2. Review the performance variables. In which areas did the Transmeta chip try to excel?1. DNS is a distributed database system that operates on the basis of a hierarchy of names. Explain
   the statement & also explain how DNS servers work.
4. Explain the workings of GSM, UWC, CdmaOne & PDC technologies of digital cellular.

 

 

 

 

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Supply Chain Management
Multiple Choices:
1. When demand is steady, the cycle inventory for a given lot size (Q) is given by:
a. Q/4
b. Q/8
c. Q/6
d. Q/2
2. There are two firms ‘x’ and ‘y’ located on a line of distance demand(0-1) at ‘a’ and ‘b’
respectively, the customers are uniformly located on the line, on keeping the fact of splitting of
market, the demand of firm ‘x’ will be given by:
a. (a+b)/2
b. a+(1-b-a)/2
c. (1+b-a)/2
d. a+(a-b)/2
3. Push process in supply chain analysis is also called:
a. Speculative process
b. Manufacturing process
c. Supplying process
d. Demand process
4. If the Throughput be ‘d’ and the flow time be ‘t’ then the Inventory ‘I’ is given by:
a. I *d=t
b. I=t+d
c. d=I*t
d. I =d*t
5. Forecasting method is:
a. Time series
b. causal
c. Qualitative
d. All the above

6. Component of order cost include:
a. Handling cost
b. Occupancy cost
c. Receiving costs
d. Miscellaneous costs
7. How many distinct types of MRO inventory are there?
a. One
b. Four
c. Three
d. Two
8. Supply chain driver is:
a. Inventory
b. Return ability
c. Fulfillment
d. All of above
9. SRM stands for:
a. Strategic Relationship Management
b. Supply Return ability Management
c. Supplier Relationship Management
d. None of the above
10. Discount factor equals to, where k is the rate of return.
a. 1/1+k
b. 2/1+k
c. 1/1-k
d. 1/2+k
Part Two:
1. Explain “zone of strategic fit”.
2. Explain “scope of strategic fit”.
3. What do you understand by “Stimulation Forecasting Method”?
4. Write a note on “Obsolescence (or spoilage) cost”.
5. Define “Square Law” in safety inventory of supply chain management.
6. What does the word “postponement” signifies in supply chain?
7. What do you understand by the term “tailored sourcing”?
8. Explain the term “Outsourcing”.
9. Write a note on “threshold contracts” for increasing agent efforts.

1. How much safety inventory of each variant must Orion keep without component commonality?
   What are the annual holding costs?
   2. How much safety inventory must be kept in component form if Orion uses common components
   for all variants? What is the annual holding cost? What is the increase in component cost using
   commonality? Is commonality justified across all variants?
   3. At what cost of commonality will complete commonality be justified.
   4. At what cost of commonality will commonality across the low-volume variants be justified.
2. How many units of each type of player should the electronics manufacturer order if there are no
   capacity constraints?
   2. How many times of each type of player should the electronics manufacturer order if the available
   is 140,000? What is the expected profit?1. Consider two products with the same margin carried by a retail store. Any leftover units of one
   product are worthless. Leftover units of the other product can be sold to outlet stores. Which
   product should have a higher level of availability? Why?
3. McMaster-Carr sells maintenance, repair, and operations equipment from five warehouses in the
   United States. W.W. Grainger sells products from more than 350 retail locations, supported by
   several warehouses. In both cases, customers place orders using the Web or on the phone. Discuss
   the pros and cons of the two strategies.

 

Telecom Technologies
Multiple Choices:
1. Which technology is among the early starter in providing VoWiFi solutions for enterprises with
wireless networks?
a. Symbol Technologies
b. Vocera Technologies
c. Spectra link Technologies
d. None of the above
2. In wireless networks ___________ refers to the measure of the performance for a system
reflecting its transmission quality & service availability.
a. Internet speeds
b. Quality of Service (QOS)
c. Interoperability
d. Line of Sight
3. A single IP-based core network handling the full range of telecom services.
a. Power line Communication (PLC)
b. VOIP
c. OFCOM
d. Next Generation Networks
4. Which country has the strong competitive broadband market with a penetration of 16%?
a. India
b. USA
c. Japan
d. China
5. Out of the following which project aims to substantially replace all of Bt’s existing network
platform (PSTDN, ISDN etc) with a single unified IP platform.
a. ADSL2
b. 21CN
c. ATM
d. SHDS

6. Which generation of mobile telephony will serve both voice & data applications?
a. 1G
b. 2G
c. 3G
d. 4G
7. This is a high bandwidth wireless networking service that operates in the frequency spectrum of
28-31 GHz range.
a. MMDS
b. LMDS
c. BW
d. None
8. Which management establishes the right architecture to deliver more products, better leveraging
development & deployment expenditures?
a. Product Portfolio Management
b. Partner Management
c. Platform Management
d. None of the above
9. ___________ Frequencies allow multiple service providers to utilize the same section of the
spectrum & compete with each other for customers.
a. Licensed
b. Unlicensed
c. Both
d. None of the above
10. LAS-CDMA stands for ____________________.
Part Two:
1. What is Backhauling solution?
2. What is Broadband?
3. What is WiMAX?
4. What is THIPON?
5. What is a VOWiFi?

1. Comment on the strategy which is adopted by the FCC “broadband wire line Internet access
   services” is fruitful or not?
2. Explain the concept of ATDI.
   2. What are the measures which are behind the success of the ATDI methodology?
   3. What is GSM/3G technology?
   4. Write down the steps which are to be known in auto planning.1. WiFi/mobile roaming and VoWiFi may play an important role for fixed-mobile convergence.
   Explain.
   2. Does a ‘light touch’ regulation regime make sense within the NGN environment? What benefits
   & risks do you see with a ‘light-touch’?

 

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Strategic Management

Multiple choices:
1. These are the plans formulated to achieve strategic goals.
a. Tactical plans
b. Strategic plans
c. Operational plans
d. Standing plans
2. This strategy facilities specialization by establishing a position of overall cost leadership,
differentiation, or both, but only within a particular segment, in an entire market.
a. Specific
b. Focus
c. Directive
d. Differentiation
3. This plan basically defines the actions of major departments and other sub-units that are required
in the execution of a strategic plan.
a. Tactical plan
b. Operational plan
c. Single-use plan
d. Long-term plan
4. This is a distinctive business or collection of related business, that can be managed relatively
independent of other businesses within the organization
a. Functional unit
b. Department unit
c. Organizational unit
d. Strategic business unit
5. These strategic plans of the organization have a time-frame exceeding five years.
a. Short-terms plans
b. Single-use plans
c. Long-term plans
d. Intermediate plans

6. Operational plans are mainly oriented towards issues that usually have a time horizon of
a. About five years
b. 3 to 5 years
c. 1 to 2 years
d. One year or less
7. These refer to the determination of the purpose and the basic long-term objectives of an
enterprise, and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve
these aims.
a. Strategies
b. Plans
c. Policies
d. Procedures
8. These strategies provide guidelines for organizational growth
a. Organizational
b. Finance
c. Marketing
d. Growth
9. There are the three major kinds of standing plans: policies, rules, and
a. Projects
b. Programs
c. Procedures
d. Standards
10. This step in the planning process involves putting the plan into action.
a. Implementation
b. Selection
c. Evaluation
d. Review
Part Two:
1. Explain the ‘Adaptive mode’ of strategic management.
2. What is ‘Behavioral theory’?
3. Write about ‘Delphi technique’ of forecasting.
4. What are the basic steps one should follow for the ‘Value chain analysis’?

 

1. If you were appointed as a CEO of AEL, Would you like to go for a separate design division?
   2. Critically evaluate the future plans of AEL.
   3. Do you think the target set by AEL was realistic? Comment.
   4. Comment on the management strategies adopted by AEL.

 

1. As Kartik, what would have been your strategies to deal with the defaulters?
2. What steps should Kartik adopt before expansion and diversification? Would it be a wise decision
   to diversify at this stage?1. Strategic planning involves both, the development of organizational objectives and the
   laying down of specifications about how they will be accomplished. In this context,
   outline the major steps in the strategic planning process.
3. Implementing strategies effectively is of great importance. The success of a strategy
   depends on how effectively it is implemented. Elucidate.

 

 

Strategic Cost Management 

 

Multiple Choices:
1. A set of policies, procedures and approaches that helps a firm attain and retain success for long is termed as-
a) Benchmarking
b) Life cycle costing
c) Target costing
d) Strategy

2. A cost management tool that bring in its focus the activities performed to produced a product is called-
a) Target costing
b) Life cycle costing
c) ABC
d) Benchmarking

3. Cost incurred to the past that are not relevant to present decisions are-
a) Fixed cost
b) Sunk cost
c) Opportunity cost
d) Indirect costs
………………..10. Which stage of product life cycle is characterized by little competition and slowly increasing sales?
a) Introduction
b) Growth
c) Maturity
d) Decline

Part Two:
1. List the characteristics of Balance score card.
2. What are the methods of Alternative costing?
3. Differentiate between fixed cost and variable cost.
4. Discuss the dissimilarities between job order costing & process costing systems.

Caselet 1

1. Discuss why Vikram has an ethical responsibility to take some action against the MNC.

2. Which of the alternative courses would be the most appropriate in the given situation?

Caselet 2

Questions:
1. Prepare an organizational structure of brilliant University.

2. List the name of the departments having under the university.

1. What is “Cost management”? Explain the primary objectives of cost management?

2. Define “Target costing”; discuss the principles of target costing.

 

 

Statistical Quality Control
Multiple choices:
1. If in a hall there are 18 persons then how many handshakes are possible?
a. 18*18
b. 18*17/2
c. 18*17
d. None of the above
2. If the number of trials be ‘n’ and the probability of occurrence be ‘p’ then the standard deviation
with respect to np, is given by:
a. (np)1/2
b. (np(1-p))1/2
c. (np)1/4
d. (np(1-p))1/4
3. For a biased coin the probability of occurrence of head is 0.4 ,if the coin is tossed twice then the
probability of occurrence of at least one head will be:
a. 0.76
b. 0.48
c. 0.64
d. 0.16
4. Factorial of 5 equals:
a. 60
b. 120
c. 24
d. 5
5. Combinatory of (4,2) equals:
a. 12
b. 8
c. 6
d. None of the above

6. ‘Economic Control of Quality of Manufactured Product’, a book by Walter A Shewhart in:
a. 1931
b. 1941
c. 1930
d. 1956
7. Quality is judged by…………
a. Retailer
b. Government
c. Customer
d. Hole seller
8. A run chart is a special chart of…………
a. Pie chart
b. Line chart
c. R chart
d. C chart
9. Universes may differ :
a. In average
b. In above average
c. At higher level
d. All of the above
10. ASQC and ANSI began in the year:
a. 1956
b. 1976
c. 1978
d. 1960
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between ‘Defect’ and ‘Defective’.
2. Explain the need of ‘short method’.
3. What does ‘Tchebycheff’s inequality theorem’ say?
4. Explain the usability of ‘stochastic limit’.
5. Write a note on ‘Cause and Effect’ diagram.

1. What marketing strategy should RSL adopt to remain competitive in the international market?
   2. Has the company taken the right decision to forward integrate and enter into the highly volatile
   garment market?
2. How could have the SQC approach, been useful in solving the immediate problems of Japan?
   2. If you were among one of the management members, what would have been your first insight.
3. A sample of 30 is to be selected from a lot of 200 articles. How many different samples are
   possible?
   2. In Dodge’s CSP-1, it is desired to apply sampling inspection to 1 piece out of every 15 and to
   maintain an AOQL of 2%. What should be the value of i?

 

 

Six Sigma Green Belt
Multiple Choices:
1. The primary purpose of a control chart is to:
a. Set Specifications and tolerances
b. Compare operations.
c. Determine the stability of a process.
d. Accept or reject a lot of material
2. When a control chart is used on a new process, capability can be assessed at which of the following
times?
a. Before the chart is first started
b. After the first ten points are plotted
c. When the plotted points hug the centerline
d. After the process is shown to be in control
3. Precision is best described as:
a. A comparison to a known standard
b. The achievement of expected outgoing quality
c. The repeated consistency of results
d. The difference between an average measurement and the actual value
4. The overall ability of two or more operators to obtain consistent results repeatedly when measuring
the same set of parts and using the same measuring equipment is the definition of:
a. Repeatability
b. Precision
c. Reproducibility
d. Accuracy
5. Which of the following conditions must be met for a process to be in a state of statistical control?
a. Most of the product out by the process is in specification.
b. All subgroup averages and rang are within control limits.
c. All variation has been completely removed
d. Previously optimal process settings are used.

6. Which of the following measures of dispersion is equal to the sum of deviations from the mean
squared divided by the sample size?
a. Range
b. Standard deviation
c. Variance
d. Mode
7. An X and R chart is used to:
a. Indicate process variation
b. Specify design Limits
c. Interpret costs
d. Identify customer expectations
8. Which of the following is the most useful graphical tool for promoting and understanding the process
of capability?
a. A flowchart
b. A histogram
c. An affinity diagram
d. An Ishikawa diagram
9. The type of chart that presents the value of items in descending order is a:
a. Histogram
b. Pareto chart
c. U chart
d. Cusum chart
10. Measures of which of the following provide attributes data?
a. Temperature in degrees
b. Attendance at meetings
c. Weight in pounds
d. Length in metric units
11. The fraction of nonconforming products is plotted on which of the following types of control chart?
a. P chart
b. U chart
c. Np chart
d. C chart
12. A cause and effect diagram is a useful tool for doing which of the following?
a. Determining the flow of a process
b. Detecting shifts in a process
c. Developing theories based on symptoms
d. Arranging theories by defect count
13. Which of the following statistics would best describe the central tendency of a sample of data?
a. Mode
b. Mean
c. Standard deviation
d. Range

14. Which of the following type of tools or techniques is considered qualitative?
a. Histogram
b. Frequency distributions
c. Pareto chart
d. Process observations
15. Out of the following which technique is most useful in narrowing issues and limiting discussion?
a. Brainstorming
b. Quality function deployment
c. Cause and effect analysis
d. Mutilating
16. In statistics, an estimation error that is persistent or systematic is called:
a. Bias
b. Sensitivity
c. Random
d. Shift
17. For a normal distribution, two standard deviation on each side of the mean would include what
percentage of the total population:
a. 47%
b. 68%
c. 95%
d. 99%
18. If a distribution is normal, u=50 s=15, what percentage of data will be less than 30?
a. 59.18%
b. 40.82%
c. 9.18%
d. 1.33%
19. A company is receiving an unusually high number of returns from various customers. The first step in
investigating the problem would be to
a. Check the inspection records
b. Establish the correlation of the returns to shipments
c. Brainstorm the potential causes
d. Classify the returns by type and degree of serious
20. Which of the following is the best definition of a flow chart?
a. A diagram used to structure ideas into useful categories
b. An illustration used to analyze variation in a process
c. A picture used to separate steps of a process in sequential order
d. An analytical tool used to clarify opposing aspects of a desired change
21. Which of the following activities would NOT contribute to the effective functioning of a team?
a. Eliminating unnecessary activities
b. Development team performance measures
c. Defining process in detail
d. Monitoring each member’s performance

22. What is the standard deviation of the population-10, 4, 16, 12, and 8?
a. 4.00
b. 4.47
c. 16.00
d. 20.00
23. Which of the following tools would be most appropriate for collecting data to study the symptoms of
a problem?
a. Check sheet
b. Flow diagram
c. Force-field analysis
d. Activity network diagram
24. Which of the following measures is a sufficient statistic for the parameter u?
a. Median
b. Mid-range
c. Mean
d. Mode
25. Positional, cyclical, and temporal variations are most commonly analyzed in:
a. SPC charts
b. Multi-vari charts
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Run charts
26. Which of the following describes the deming method for continuous improvement?
a. Cost of quality analysis
b. Process map
c. Tree Diagram
d. Plan-do-check-act cycle
27. In analysis of variance, which of the following distribution is the basis for determining whether the
variance estimates are all from the same population?
a. Chi square
b. Students
c. Normal
d. F
28. Which of the following statement best describes the set of value of a random variable?
a. It is finite.
b. It is an interval
c. It can be discrete or continuous.
d. It can be tracked by using control charts or scatter plots.
29. Which of the following is the best description of randomization?
a. A technique used to increase the precision of an experiment
b. A means of assuring representative sampling
c. The repetition of an observation or measurement
d. The relationship between two or more variables

30. When the order of items is not important, which of the following method is used to determine the
number of sets and subsets of items?
a. Combination
b. Permutation
c. Factorization
d. Simulation
31. Scatter diagrams are best described as:
a. Histograms.
b. Correlation analysis.
c. Pareto analysis.
d. Ishikawa diagrams.
32. A __________ is created to determine customers of a specific process.
a. Pareto chart
b. Flow diagram
c. Cause and effect diagram
d. Scatter diagram
33. A production line uses signs at specific points on the line to indicate when components or raw
materials need to be replenished. This practice is an example of:
a. Kanban
b. Poka-yake
c. Checkpoints
d. Hoshin
34. Which of the following is a good tool for planning cycle time reduction and concurrent operations?
a. A timeline
b. A Pareto diagram
c. An X and R chart
d. A PERT chart
35. Attribute and variable data are best described as which of the following?
a. Counted values measured values
b. Counted values visual features
c. Measured values counted values
d. Visual features counted values
36. All of the following are common ways for people to react to conflict except:
a. Competing
b. Collaborating
c. Avoiding
d. Sabotaging
37. A quality manager has chosen to survey customer satisfaction by taking samples based on the
categories of frequency of use, categories of use, and demographic. This technique is known as
a. Random sampling
b. Data collection
c. Stratification
d. Customer classification

38. Which of the following actions is Not used to reduce process cycle time?
a. Analyzing current processes
b. Reducing queue times
c. Setting priorities
d. Implementing activity-based costing
39. A company’s accounts payable department is trying to reduce the time between receipt and
payment of invoices and has recently completed a flowchart. Which of the following tool is the next
to be used by them?
a. Fishbone diagram
b. Scatter diagram
c. Box and whisker plat
d. Histogram
40. In a manufacturing company, the machine shop is what kind of customer in relation to the Human
Resource department?
a. Intermediate
b. Hidden
c. External
d. Internal

1. Describe how QFD fits into the overall DFSS process.
2. What is interrelationship Digraph? Explain it with example.
3. Find the area under the standard normal curve between +1.50 standard deviations and +2.50
standard deviations.
4. Define terms related to One-Way ANOVA and interpret their results & data plots.
5. Define & describe the use of Rational Sub grouping.

1. Suppose you are cooking steak for 100 people, & the current approval rating is 75% acceptable.
   You want to know the affect of different methods and approaches to see how the overall approval
   or “yield” is affected. By using the Full Factorial method explain how the overall approval or
   “yield” is affected.
2. Interpret Control Charts? Distinguish between common & special causes using rules for
   determining stastical control.

 

 

Operations Research

Part One:
1. In case of (<=) inequality, to convert the inequality to an equation, we used to add a slack
variable to the left hand side of the constraint, this slake variable should be:
a. Negative
b. Positive
c. May be positive or negative
d. Zero
2. In a set of m Χ n equations (m<n) the maximum number of corner points is given by…………
3. According to penalty rule for artificial variables, the objective coefficient of the artificial variable
represents an appropriate penalty, positive or negative depending on the problem, but the
necessary condition required to hold this is, the value should be:
a. ∞
b. 0
c. 1
d. None of the above
4. The cases of the Simplex method in which the value of the variables may increased indefinitely
without change in the constraints is:
a. Degeneracy
b. Alternative optima
c. Unbounded solutions
d. Nonexisting solutions
5. An arc in network model is said to be ‘Directed’ if it allows positive flow in one direction and
a. Negative flow in negative direction
b. Zero flow in negative direction
c. Negative flow in perpendicular direction
d. None of the above
6. PERT stands for……………………………………………………………………………………..
7. In preemptive method for goal programming , the optimum value of a higher priority goal is
never degraded by a lower priority goal.(T/F)
8. The column dropping rule does not guarantee the non degradation of higher priority goals.(T/F)
9. The additive algorithm developed by E Balas for solving ILP problems was based on pure binary
variables.(T/F)
10. According to inventory model for commodity possession for smooth business operation, Holding
cost represents:
a. Price per unit of an inventory item.
b. The fixed charge incurred when an order is placed regardless of its size.
c. The cost of maintaining inventory in stock.
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. What do you understand by ‘Degeneracy’ found in using simplex method?
   2. What do know about ‘The Balancing of Transportation Model’? If unbalanced then remedy.
   3. Explain ‘Vogel Approximation Model (VAM)’.
   4. Explain ‘Dijkstra’s Algorithm’ for routing.

 

1. The stock of WalMark Stores, Inc., trades on the New York Stock Exchange under the symbol
   WMS. Historically, the price of WMS goes up with the increase in the Dow average 60% of the
   time and goes down with the DOW 25% of the time. There is also a 5% chance that WMS will go
   up when the Dow goes and 10% that it will go down when the Dow goes up.
   a) Determine the probability that WMS will go up regardless of the Dow.
2. b) Find the probability that probability that WMS goes up given that the Dow is up?
3. c) What is the probability WMS goes down given that Dow is down?
4. Prove that if the probability P {A/B} = P {A}, then A and B must be independent.3. Tasco Oil owns a pipeline booster unit that that operates continuously. The time between
   breakdowns for each booster is exponential with a mean of 20 hours. The repair time is
   exponential with mean 3 hours. In a particular station, two repairpersons attend 10 boosters. The
   hourly wage for each repairperson is $18. Pipeline losses are estimated to be $30 per broken
   booster per hour. Tasco is studying the possibility of hiring an additional repairperson.
5. a) Will there be any cost savings in hiring a third repairperson?
6. b) What is the schedule loss in dollars per breakdown when the number of repairpersons on duty
   is two? Three?
7. Cars arrive at a one-bay car wash facility the interarrival time is exponential, with a mean of 10
   minutes. Arriving cars line up in a single lane can accommodate at most five waiting cars. If the
   lane is full, newly arriving cars will go elsewhere. It takes between 10 and 15 minutes, uniformly
   distributed, to wash a car. Simulate the system for 960 minutes, and estimate the time a car spends
   in the facility?
8. Define Transportation Model and its variant in brief.
   2. Explain in detail Game Theory. Support you answer examples.

 

 

Advertising Media Planning

 

Multiple Choices:
1. Advertising done once a month is calleda.
Continuity
b. Flighting
c. Pulsing
d. All of the above
2. Classification of geographic areas includea.
Regions
b. TV  market  delineation  such  as  DMA’S
c. Age
d. Both a & b
3. The data set contains the boundaries for metropolitan & micropolitan statistical areas in united
states is known asa.
Designated market areas
b. Metropolitan & micropolitan statistical areas
c. Core-based statistical areas
d. None of these
4. Which of the following is the general media planning sites:-
a. Advertising media internet center
b. Media post
c. Both a & b
d. Media mark research & intelligence
5. Arrange the following into classic Engel/kollat model of the buying process.
a. Search for alternatives to solve the problem
b. Alternative evaluation
c. Post purchasing evaluation
Examination Paper of Media Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
d. Problem recognition
a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. ii, I, iv, iii
c. iv, I, ii, iii
d. iii, iv, ii, i
6. Which of the following are the top five perennial questions that media research cannot answer?
a. How much is enough
b. Which medium is most effective
c. Which is better: flighting or continuity
d. All of the above
7. DMA stands for
8. GRPs stands for
9. What is the full form of BDIa.
Broad development index
b. Brand development index
c. Brand display index
d. Balanced dynamic index
10. Which of the following are the elements of media strategy?
a. Media target
b. Creative strategy
c. Reach & frequency
d. All of the above
Part Two:
1. What are the principles for selecting media vehicles?
2. What are the important reasons for using a media mix?
3. List the strategies used by media planner to create the awareness.
4. Write short note on GRPs?

 

1. What  do  you  see  as  the  company’s  real  communication  problem?
   2. What would you suggest to improve communication in the company?
2. On the basis of above case explain how to advertise and market your Product through SMS?
   2. Give the detailed advantages of advertising & marketing the products through Short Messaging
   Services (SMS).1. Define Media planning. Explain the objective of marketing in media planning?
   2. What is the creative media strategy? List the guidelines for a creative media strategy

 

 

Media and Advertising Management
Multiple Choices:
1. Which of the following is not the spectrum of advertising?
a. Sales organization
b. Communication with consumer
c. Distribution channel
d. Advertising for media
2. AIDA stands for__________
3. Which of the following is the indirect role of advertising?
a. Lowering of price
b. Advertising & competition
c. Guide to perspective buyer
d. Both a & b
4. Lack of clarity in setting advertising objectives may arise due to thea.
Problem in stating objectives in quantifiable terms
b. Inability in identifying the largest audience
c. Inadequate information
d. All of the above
5. Which of the following is not the criticism of advertising?
a. Advertising creates insecurity
b. Barriers to entry
c. Product proliferation
d. Inefficient manufacturer stay in business
6. A part of amount per unit of the item sold is assigned as the advertising appropriation is known
asa.
Percentage of sales
b. Unit of sales
Examination Paper of Media Management
IIBM Institute of Business Management 7
c. Competitive parity
d. Return on investment method
7. POP stands for __________
8. Which of the following is the strategy of segmentationa.
Strategy of concentration
b. Strategy of differentiation
c. Both a & b
d. None
9. Various types of advertising material which can be used in shops and stores to draw the
attention of the prospects such as dispensers, hanging signs, danglers and streamer is known asa.
Outdoor promotional media
b. Point of purchase material
c. Direct announcement
d. Advertising specialties and gifts
10. What are the common themes, commonly used by a copywriter in creating “Industrial
advertisement”.
a. Old and with long experience
b. Research and development
c. Technical breakthrough
d. All of the above
Part Two:

1. State the role of Advertising.
   2. What are the differences between industrial & consumer advertising?
   3. Explain the” Roger’s  innovation  model” of advertising?
   4. Describe the situation in which advertising may be acquired.
2. DTH remains the primary digital pay-TV platform in India. Comment?
   2. Give  the  advantages  of  the  Cable’s.
3. What type of data will be reported in the Final Study?
   2. Explain, by Market Researcher select the Boulder Colorado?1. Define  “Advertising”.  Explain  the  Benefits  of  “Advertising”?
   2. What  is  “Industrial  Advertising”?  Explain  the  objective  of  “Industrial advertising”?

 

Construction Industry
Multiple Choices:
1. This effect is the result of a combination of a variety of factors that can be traced back to the
building’s design building materials, and the cumulative effects of low order characteristics on
human health:
a. Sick building syndrome
b. Ionizing radiation
c. Non-ionizing radiation
d. Pollutants
2. ____________ represents all aural sensations experienced by the user due to noise at all
frequencies, levels, and dynamics:
a. Hydrothermal discomfort
b. Acoustic inconvenience
c. Visual discomfort
d. Olfactory discomfort
3. This is the influence of the production of toxic compounds by the construction and operation on
the site itself & neighboring surface:
a. Air pollution
b. Soil pollution
c. Acid rain
d. Smog & other air pollution
4. ________ opens up new markets and news competition from the construction sector in the new
member states.
a. PU Enlargement
b. CU Enlargement
c. DU Enlargement
d. EU Enlargement
5. Installing energy efficient appliances & fixtures & changing irrigation practices & behavior can
reduce water consumption by 30 percent
a. Water conservative
b. Recycled content materials
c. Materials reuse

d. None of the above
6. This new system was intended to reduce manipulations in the tendering process:
a. Institutional Reforms
b. Mandatory Tendering
c. Mandatory Tender Evaluation System
d. Mandatory Construction Supervision
7. It provides a graphical representation of the individual measured values in a data set according to
the frequency of occurrence:
a. Check-sheet
b. Histogram
c. Checklists
d. Pareto Analysis
8. __________ sets out the vision for a future European Construction sectors as a key element in
achieving the Lisbon objectives:
a. Smart Construction
b. Building the future
c. Strategies for innovation
d. Strategic alliances
9. ECCREDI stands for _______________________________.
10. LEED stands for __________________________________.
Part Two:

1. What is ‘Mobile Document Management System’?
   2. Briefly explain the Lean Production.
   3. Define Green Building.
   4. What is slowing down Penetration of Green Construction?
2. The cost-effective construction technologies would emerge as the most acceptable case of
   sustainable technologies in India. Comment
   2. Explain what lessons are required to be learned from International experiences and its own past
   experiences in Construction Project.
3. Explain the construction of the Euro Tunnel.
   2. State the benefits of the construction of the Euro Tunnel.1. Explain the Government Role in BOT Projects. Give the Recommendations for Encouraging the
   Private Sector Involvements in BOT Projects.
   2. Explain the Role of Construction Industry in Climate Change.
   3. What are the areas of design that are to be and shall be addressed in order to achieve sustainable
   built environment?

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Project Management in Construction

 

Multiple Choices:
1. It included Manpower, material and machinery that is necessary to perform the work:
a. Scope
b. Quality
c. Resources
d. Completion time
2. In this analysis a project is formulated and appraised based on the estimates generated from past
data, experience & analysis.
a. Risk analysis
b. Sensitivity analysis
c. Probability analysis
d. Economic analysis
3. It is a verbal written or on-line document that shows the up-to-date performance status of a task
that has been entrusted to a responsibility/accounting centre.
a. Trends Forecasting
b. Reporting Performance
c. Performance Variance Analysis
d. Recording Performance
4. In this contract, the architectural and engineering design and drawings are provided by the
Employer/Client to the contractor at the time of tendering as a part of the contract documents:
a. Build-only contracts
b. Build-own transfer contracts
c. Engineering Procurement
d. Construction Contract
5. These arise where no ground exists either in the contract or in common law:
a. Contractual claims
b. Extra contractual claims
c. Ex-gratia claims
d. None of the above
6. In this case, both the parties willingly discuss the dispute and arrive at a settlement without the
intervention of any third party:
a. Conciliation through negotiations
b. Conciliation through mediation
c. Conciliation by setting up Dispute Review Board (DRB)
d. Conciliation through others
7. The claim which is registered by giving a notice is known as:
a. Registering claims
b. Establishing claims
c. Presentation claims
d. None of the above
8. This term covers the entire electronic and electro-mechanical equipment used in the computerized
data processing system:
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. Operators
d. Procedure
9. This enables the electronic transfer of a complete file from one computer to another:
a. Internet
b. Intranets
c. telnet
d. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
10. It is an assurance to the owner that selected the contractor will actually proceed with the contract
at the bid price:
a. performance Bonds
b. Bid Bonds
c. Claim Bonds
d. Contract Bonds
Part Two:

1. What are the main causes of a Project Failure?
   2. What is Responsibility assignment Matrix (RAM) chart?
   3. Define Professional Construction Management (PCM) approach.
   4. Differentiate between Project Management & General Management.
2. Should you go with a department that has been chronically delaying when the contract has a large
   incentive/penalty clause for on-time delivery?
   2. Can you risk sending out a design to a supplier when the design is to be proved?
3. What are the significant features of HLL’s ad campaign ‘Project Bharat’?
   2. How has HLL identified itself with India’s Economic Development?1. Who is a Project Manager? Describe the Role of a Project Manager.
   2. What is PMIS Report? Explain the benefits of establishing PMIS.

 

Portfolio Management
Multiple Choices:
1. _________ is the market for issue of new securities.
a. Secondary Market
b. Consumer Market
c. Primary Market
d. Stock Market
2. Inflation is measured in terms of either wholesale price or_______.
a. Face Value
b. Retail Prices
c. MRP Value
d. Tax Value
3. _______ is basically a channel through which the savings of investors are made available to
corporations for investment.
a. Consumer Market
b. Stock Market
c. Retail Market
d. Whole sale Market
4. The share premium reserve is the amount paid by the ______ in excess of the par value of the
shares.
a. Shareholders
b. Stakeholders
c. Tax payers
d. Employees
5. _______ measures the return on sales and assets of the firm.
a. Liquidity Ratios
b. Turnover Ratios
c. Common Stock Ratios
d. Profitability Ratios
6. In which of the following chart, the closing price for each period is plotted as a point?
a. Line Chart
b. Bar Chart
c. Point and Figure Chart
d. R- Chart
7. Capital gains or losses arise when the investors sells his securities at a price____.
a. Similar from the Cost
b. Different from the Cost
c. Different from the Profit
d. Similar from the Loss.
8. A steep rise in price, followed by wide uniform fluctuations around an average price lead to
formulation of a ______.
a. Channel
b. Triangle
c. Flag
d. Wedge
9. CML stands for______.
a. Capital Market Life
b. Cost Market Line
c. Capital Market Line
d. Capital Measurement Line.
10. The security return on any day is defined as:-
a. Today’s Return = Today’s Price + Yesterday’s Price
Yesterday’s Price
b. Today’s Return = Today’s Cost―yesterday’s Cost
Yesterday’s Price
c. Today’s Return = Today’s Price + Today’s Cost
Yesterday’s Price
d. Today’s Return = Today’s Price ― yesterday’s Price
Yesterday’s Price
Part Two:

1. Discuss the characteristics of Stock Exchange in India.
   2. Describe the Dow Theory.
   3. Write a short note on Capital Market Line.
   4. Mr. X has put Rs. 9000 in a five – year fixed deposit account with a bank. If the bank pays
   interest at the rate of 15% per annum how much money would Mr. X receive on maturity of the
   deposit?
   5. Mr. Robert bought 90 shares of ICA Fertilizers Ltd. at Rs. 59 each on 1/1/2008. On 1/6/2008, the
   company issued bonus shares in the ratio of 1:2. On 1/1/2010 Robert sold 35 of the bonus shares
   for Rs. 78. What is the capital gain made by him ignoring indexation?

 

1. Analyze the characteristics of companies which have a small asset base and a low ratio of Market
   to book Value?
2. Market capitalization of a company is a product of number of outstanding shares and the current
   market price. Since the current market price (CMP) of the stock does not remain constant, is
   investing for a long-term in a company looking at its present market value a good guiding
   principle? Explain.

 

1. Why is the government reluctant to provide concession or remove tax on dividends declared by
   dedicated gilt funds?
   2. How can dedicated gilt funds be used to develop a retail segment for government securities?
   3. If dedicated gilt funds are exempted from income tax for individuals, what will be the
   implications of such measures on the retail gilt market?1. Discuss the concept of Portfolio Insurance.
   2. Discuss the fundamental notions of modern portfolio theory.
   3. Consider a Rs. 50 crores mutual funds floated on 1-1-2003 with a life of 8 year. The fund
   estimates that its annual outflow on account of dividend, operating and management costs would
   amount to Rs.15.5 crores. Suppose that the rate of interest is 16%. What is the target duration for
   this mutual fund?

 

 

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Investments Analysis and Behavior
Multiple Choices:
1. Which one of the following is the world’s first electronic stock market?
a. American Stock Exchange
b. Nasdaq National Market
c. Bombay stock Exchange
d. New York stock Exchange
2. The highest price that market maker is willing to pay to buy a security, is referred as:
a. Bid
b. Ask
c. Bid Size
d. Ask Size
3. IPOs stands for ________.
a. Indian Premier Offerings
b. Initial Public Offerings
c. Initial Premier Offerings
d. Initial Private Offerings
4. Under the securities act of ______, when a company makes a public offering, it must file a
registration statement with the SEC.
a. 1934
b. 1936
c. 1935
d. 1933
5. It is the chance of loss in the value of fixed- income investment following a rise in interest rates.
a. Risk
b. Credit Risk
c. Interest Rate Risk
d. Expected Return

6. Extreme changes in financial asset values tied to changing economic fundamentals are defined
   as______.
   a. Irrational Bubbles
   b. Rational Bubbles
   c. Market bubbles
   d. None of the above
   7. Rhythmic pattern of contraction and expansion in the overall economy is referred as ______.
   a. Contraction
   b. Expansion
   c. Business Cycle
   d. Recession
   8. A measure that assesses what others are doing and suggests you should do the opposite, is:
   a. Odd lot Indicators
   b. Contrary Indicators
   c. Mutual fund flow Indicators
   d. Brokerage account credit balance indicators
   9. Individuals and Institutions that purchase bonds for interest income and long term capital gains
   are:
   a. Primary Bond Market
   b. Bond Dealers
   c. Bond Investors
   d. Bond Issuers
   10. Funds that charge sales feels ranging from One to three percent, are called:
   a. Low-Load Funds
   b. No-Load Funds
   c. Exchange Fee
   d. Back- End Load

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘New York Stock Exchange’.
   2. What do you understand by ‘Micro Cap Fraud”?
   3. Explain the term ‘Treasury Bonds’.
   4. Explain the meaning of ‘Mutual Fund’ and its advantages.

 

1. What do you think are the flaws in the public issue of Hughes Software? Enumerate them.
   2. Can you construct a model for IPO process, which can help in price discovery in setting the
   price at the IPO?

 

1. What are the unique features of ADRs that attract Indian companies to list on NASDAQ or
   NYSE?
   2. What is unsponsored ADR? Why did it become obsolete?1. Discuss the concept of Macroeconomics environment. What are the major forces that drive the
   economy?
   2. Explain the following terms:
   a. Capital Market Line
   b. Security Market Line

 

Compensation Management

Multiple Choices

1. A ________ is a hierarchy of jobs to which wage rates have been attached.
a. Wage Level
b. Wage Structure
c. Wage Index
d. Wage Policy

2. It is the wage which is above the minimum wage but below the living wage.
a. Basic wage
b. Overtime
c. Fair wage
d. Compensation

3. It is the process of minimizing the physical and perceptual loads imposed on people engaged in any type of work.
a. Motion Economy
b. Human Engineering
c. Value Analysis
d. Task Identity

4. It is the method which lists frequency of critical behaviors in an employee.
a. Performance Appraisal
b. Performance Matrix
c. 360 degree feedback
d. Management by Objectives

5. A map to illustrate behavioral parameters requires in competent performance is:
a. Competency Mapping
b. Balanced Score Card
c. Behavioral Observation Scale
d. Key Results Areas

6. In this type of team, team members are temporarily assigned some tasks to accomplish:
a. Cross functional Team
b. Hybrid team
c. Process Team
d. Parallel Team
7. The practice of comparing compensation with other competing to offer a competitive pay
package to employees, is refer as:
a. Broadband Policy
b. Bench Marking
c. Retention Policy
d. None of the above
8. Any wage cost not directly connected with the employees’ productive effort, performance
service, is called:
a. Allowances
b. Incentives
c. Fringe Benefits
d. Bonus
9. It is a company’s expenditure spent directly on employees excluding the cost of infrastructure:
a. Basic Salary
b. Cost to company
c. Allowances
d. Bonus
10. Strategy that provides overall guidelines for the organization is refer as:
a. HR Strategy
b. Functional strategy
c. Corporate strategy
d. Operational strategy
Part Two:

1. Discuss the terms ‘wages’ and ‘salary’. What factors determine the wage structure in an industrial
   enterprise?
   2. Define job design. Briefly explain various technique of job design.
   3. What is a balanced Score Card.? What are its different perspectives?
   4. Write a short note on 360-degree performance feedback.

 

1. Study the case and provide an alternative compensation design, which would redress the problem
   faced by the two- wheeler major in Chennai.
2. Identify aspects of Denzel’s behavior that indicate that he was well-motivated.
   2. Identify those actions taken by the Manager that helped to motivate Denzil.1. What is compensation management? What goals or objectives does it follow?
   2. What are some of the challenges which HR managers face in designing a compensation system?
   3. What is a fringe benefit? Can it be made a part of an employee benefits plan?

 

International Financial Management

Multiple choices:
1. Maintenance margin money denotes the minimum level to which the margin is allowed to
fall in the sequel of loss, if the balance drops below this, one has to deposit,
a. Initial margin amount
b. Variation margin amount
c. Maintenance margin amount
d. Initial as well as variation margin amount.
2. The two kind of swap in the forward market are
a. Forward swap and reverse swap.
b. Reverse swap and option swap.
c. Forward and option less swap.
d. Forward swap and option swap.
3. International Fisher Effect or generalized version of the Fisher effect is a combination of
a. PPP theory and Fisher’s open proposition.
b. Fisher’s open and closed proposition.
c. PPP theory and Fisher’s closed proposition.
d. None of the above.
4. Exchange rates are quoted as ‘direct’ and ‘indirect’ ,if the direct quote of a country ‘X’
(currency unit ‘a’) with country ‘Y’ (currency unit ‘b’), is “ a 50/ b 20” then the indirect
quote will be
a. b 2.5/ a 1
b. b 0.4/ a 1
c. b 10/ a 1
d. Cannot be calculated.
5. If the investors are risk neutral ie forward prices are equal to the expected spot prices at
delivery then the covariance of marginal rate of substitution and the exchange rate of
contract at delivery is
a. Always unity
b. Zero
c. Infinite
d. Between Zero and unity
6. In cylinder or tunnel option, the correct option is
a. If the spot rate is lower than the lower strike rate then buyer has to pay lower spot rate.
b. If the spot rate is lower than the lower strike rate then buyer has to pay lower strike rate.
c. If the spot rate is higher than the higher strike rate then buyer has to pay lower strike
rate.
d. If the spot rate is higher than the higher strike rate then buyer has to pay higher strike
rate.
7. The concept of parallel loan says
a. Amount of the loan moves out of the county but it serves the purpose of internal loan
also.
b. Amount of the loan moves out of the county but it serves the purpose of cross border
loan.
c. Amount of the loan moves within the county and it serves the purpose of external loan
only.
d. Amount of the loan moves within the county but it serves the purpose of cross border
loan.
8. According to one of the earliest theory proposed by Hymer on the imperfect market
a. Multinational firm is a typical imperfect market.
b. Multinational firm is a perfect market
c. One should not look for control if want the maximum profit
d. None
9. If the NVP(net present value) from parent’s perspective and from the subsidiary’s
perspective are positive and negative respectively then
a. Project can not be accepted
b. Project shall be accepted
c. Project may be accepted but it is doubtful how far useful for parent unit.
d. Project may be accepted but chance of loss in host country currency will be there.
10. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ are the price elasticity of demand for import and export respectively then
devaluation helps to improve current account balance, only if
a. 2A + B is greater than 1.
b. A – B is equal to 0.
c. A+B is greater than 1.
d. A + B is lesser than 0.
Part Two:

1. Write a note on ‘Fixed Parity System’ for exchange rates.
   2. What are Direct & Indirect Quotes of exchange rates?
   3. What is ‘Forward Market Hedging’?
   4. How could ‘Optimization of Portfolio’ be achieved?
2. Mention the loss borne by the US exporter in the sequel of appreciation of dollar.
   2. What strategy the Indian importer needs to follow to hedge the exchange rate risk?
3. Describe the network of ABN AMRO Bank in India.
   2. What role does it play for global cash management?
4. Crawling peg is the compromise between fixed exchange rate and floating exchange rate
   discuss.
5. Is international working capital management more complex than the domestic working
   capital management?

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BPO and KPO Management

Part One:
1. Manpower can be retained by which of the following technique:
a. Comfort and Care
b. Problem-Solving technique
c. Attention
d. Proper Training
2. Which of the following is not a challenge to the BPO Industry?
a. Data Security
b. Poor Infrastructure
c. Attrition
d. Lack of Identity
3. Pricing technique where a customer pays a flat rate for services is:
a. Variable Pricing
b. Unit Pricing
c. Fixed Pricing
d. Risk/Reward sharing
4. A MIS report that deals in compliance related to quality and timeliness is:
a. Cash Tracker Report
b. Senior Management Report
c. SLA Compliance Report
d. Production Report
5. Off – Shoring means _________________________________.
6. Size, quality, labor cost etc. are categorized into which form of ITES to be outsourced:
a. People Attractiveness
b. Labor Attractiveness
c. Location Attractiveness
d. Quality Attractiveness
7. The risk that include errors in estimating overall time for mitigating is a:
a. Data Security Risk
b. Transition Risk
c. Transactional Risk
d. Loss of Control Risk
8. Mitigating of Risk means __________________________________________.
9. Which of the following is not a benefit derived from BPO?
a. Improved Accountability
b. Operational Cost Control
c. Improved HR
d. IPR Protection
10. The service that comprises of areas related to the functional operations is:
a. Vertical Service
b. Horizontal Service
c. Diagonal Service
d. Service Focused Service
Part Two:

1. Define the term ‘Emotional Intelligence’.
   2. Differentiate between BPO and KPO.
   3. Discuss in brief the Web – based Market Research process in the KPO’s.
   4. Write a short note on ‘Change Management’.
   5. Discuss in brief the problems faced by BPO’s.

 

1. Discuss about the various training programmes offered by Intelenet Global Company.
   2. Write a short note on:
   Contract Centre Operation
   Human Resource Management
2. Discuss about the various activities performed by Hinduja TMT.
   2. Write a short note on:
   Disaster Recovery Centre
   BPO Arm in Hinduja TMT
3. Discuss the different strategies that are adopted by the BPO’s to control their Attrition.
   2. What are the Pros and Cons of BPO?
   3. Write a note on the SWOT Analysis of Indian BPO Industry.

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BPO Industry

Multiple Choices:
1. Which of the following is not included in Porter’s Five Model for competitiveness?
a. Threat of New Entrants
b. Degree of Rivalry
c. Bargaining Power of Suppliers
d. Government Strategies
2. Which of the following is not a benefit of a BPO?
a. Cost Reduction
b. Cross – pollination of best products
c. Focus on core process
d. Automatic call distributions
3. In stage there is orderly transfer of activities to the service provider.
a. Negotiation
b. Ongoing Management
c. Implementation
d. Preparation
4. List the Process of Outsourcing in appropriate order:
i. Listing out available in – house resources
ii. Signing the contract
iii. Negotiations, including a letter of intent and usually a contract with terms & conditions
iv. ‘Steady state’ period, which makes the end of the transitioning phase and the beginning of
the cost cutting phase of the company
a. i, iii, ii, iv
b. i, iv, iii, ii
c. i, ii, iii, iv
d. I, iii, iv, ii
5. The BPO that handles almost all the transactional and administrative processes or other several
functions are:
a. Comprehensive BPO
b. Transactional BPO
c. Niche BPO
d. ITO
6. The model which is preferred when the client requires that the job should be done quickly and
successfully:
a. Revenue Distance Model
b. Global delivery Model
c. Built – Operate – Transfer Model
d. Blended Offshore Outsourcing Model
7. Which of the following is not a main certifying agency for Indian BPO?
a. IRDA
b. KPMG
c. DNV
d. STQC
8. Challenges related to information infrastructure and branding is a type of a KPO
challenge.
a. Internal Challenge
b. Industry Challenge
c. Customer Challenge
d. Competitor Challenge
9. Which of the following is not a dimension of service quality?
a. Empathy
b. Reliability
c. Assurance
d. Responsiveness
10. COPC – 2000 is a:
a. Quality Certificate
b. Measurement Certificate
c. Performance Certificate
d. Regulatory Certificate
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between BPO, KPO and PPO.
2. Define the term ‘COBIT’.
3. Write a short note on ‘Corporate Governance’.
4. Differentiate between BPO and Call Centers.
5. Define ‘Outsourcing’.

1. Discuss in detail about the solutions offered by CBay to the healthcare providers.
2. Discuss in detail about the career opportunities with Suyash software.1. Explain porter’s Five Forces Model of Competition with reference to the BPO Industry in India.
   2. Discuss in detail the main challenges of BPO Industry.
   3. What are the different models of Business Process Outsourcing?

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Logistics Engineering and Management
Multiple Choices:
1. Analysis method in which evaluation of alternative design configuration using multiple criteria is:
a. Level of repair analysis
b. Maintenance task analysis
c. Evaluation of design alternatives
d. None of the above
2. Orientation of Logistic are:
a. Product among organization
b. Total benefits among organization
c. Towards managing of labour
d. Towards managing the physical flow of material & product among organization
3. LMI stands for:
a. Logistics Management Information
b. Legal Management Information
c. Logistics Managerial Information
d. None of the above
4. Technical performance measures (TPMs) is applied for:
a. Evaluation of prime mission related system & elements for expenses
b. Evaluation of prime mission related system & elements for labour
c. Evaluation of prime mission related system & elements for support
d. None of the above
5. System structure should facilitate:
a. Design on an evolutionary basis
b. Design a system within a minimum cost
c. Design on an evolutionary basis & with minimum cost
d. Both (a) & (b)
6. Conceptual design is initiated in response of:
a. Identification of customer need
b. Identification of consumer demand
c. Identification of Industry demand
d. None of the above
7. Industrial engineering refers to:
a. Design & development of a product
b. Design & development of industrial tools
c. Design & development of expenses
d. Design & development of production capability
8. Contractor logistic support (CLS) refers to:
a. System maintenance activities
b. System evaluation activities
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
9. Discounting refers to:
a. Application of selected rate of interest
b. Application of selected difference measure
c. Application of selected of interest & measure differences
d. None of the above
10. A plan which is directed towards covering of logistic support for a system is:
a. System Retirement Plan
b. Post production Support plan
c. Facilities plan
d. Computer Resource plan
Part Two:

1. Personal training requirement are based on what factors?
   2. What is meant by Design criteria? Provide some examples.
   3. Briefly describe evaluation of logistic’s elements.
   4. What are the advantages & disadvantages of functional organization?
2. Analyze the case in view of the logistics outsourcing practices of the ISL.
   2. Discuss the importance of logistics outsourcing with reference to Supply Chain Management.
3. What modification would you suggest in enhancing the existing logistics system?
   2. Critically analyze the efforts of ABC in launching generic versions of products going off
   patents.1. Define Logistic support in the context of the production /construction phase. What are the
   elements of Logistic support?
   2. Define reliability & maintainability. What are their major characteristics?

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Risk Management and Financial Institutions

Multiple Choices:
1. The options that come into existence or disappear when the price of the underlying asset
reaches a certain barrier.
a. Asian Options
b. Barrier options
c. Basket Options
d. Binary Options
2. The volatility of this model is changes with the passage of time:
a. EMWA Model
b. GAMMA Model
c. VEGA Model
d. GARCH Model
3. The office which consists of risk managers who are monitoring the risks being is taken is called
a. Front Office
b. Middle Office
c. Back Office
d. None of the above
4. A separate issue from the number of exceptions is:
a. Bunching
b. Grouping
c. Stress testing
d. None
5. This simulation is a very popular approach for estimating VaR:
a. Historical Simulation
b. Accuracy
c. Extensions
d. None of the above
6. Out of the following which rate is defined as the square of the volatility?
a. Standard Deviation
b. Variance
c. Mean
d. Median
7. Risk measures satisfying all four conditions are referred to as:
a. Time Horizon
b. Auto Correlation
c. Confidence level
d. Coherent
8. Only bonds with ratings of Baa or above are considered to be:
a. Investment grade
b. Internal Credit Ratings
c. Altman’s Z- Score
d. None of the above
9. The by- product of any program to measure & understand operational risk is likely to be the
development of:
a. Risk & Control self assessment
b. Key Risk Indicators
c. Operational risk Capital
d. Casual Relationship
10. The Securities that are subject to a discount are known as a:
a. Collateralization
b. Downgrade Trigger
c. Haircut
d. None of the above
Part Two:
1. Explain ‘Collateralization’.
2. Briefly explain the ‘Linear Model’.
3. Explain the ‘GARCH-MODEL’.
4. Explain the Concept of ‘Exchange-Traded Markets’.
5. Differentiate between the Systematic vs. Nonsystematic Risk.

 

1. In the 1980s, Bankers Trust developed index currency option notes (ICONs). These are
   bonds in which the amount received by the holder at maturity varies with a foreign
   exchange rate. One example was its trade at maturity varies with a foreign exchange rate.
   One example was its trade with the Long Term Credit Bank of Japan. The ICON
   specified that if the yen/US dollar exchange rate, ST , is greater than 169 yen per dollar at
   maturity (in 1995), the holder of the bond receives $1,000. If it is less than 169 yen per
   dollar, the amount received by the holder of the bond is
   1,000- max [0, 1,000 (169 – 1) ST
   When the exchange rate is below 84.5, nothing is received by the holder at maturity.
   Show that this ICON is a combination of a regular bond and two options.
2. Suppose that the risk-free zero curves is flat at 7% per annum with continuous
   compounding and that defaults can occur halfway through each year in a new 5- year
   credit default swap. Suppose that the recovery rate is 30% and the default probabilities
   each year conditional on no earlier default are 3%. Estimate the credit default swap
   spread. Assume payments are made annually.
3. Suppose that 6- month, 12-month, 18-month, 24-month, and 30-month zero rates are 4%,
   4.2%, 4.4%, 4.6%, and 4.8% per annum, respectively, with continuous compounding.
   Estimate the cash price of a bond with a face value of 100 that will mature in 30 months
   and pays a coupon of 4% per annum semiannually.
4. Suppose that the economic capital estimates for two business units are as follows:
   Business Unit 1 2 Market risk 10 50 Credit risk 30 30 Operational risk 50 10
   The correlation between market risk and credit risk in the same business unit is 0.3. the
   correlation between credit risk in one business unit and credit risk in another is 0.7. the
   correlation between market risk in one business unit and market risk in the other is 0.2.
   All other correlations are zero. Calculate the total economic capital. How much should be
   allocated to each business unit?

 

1. A Bank is considering expanding its asset management operations. The main risk is
   operational risk. It estimates that the expected operational risk loss from the new venture
   in one year is $2 million and the 99.97% worst-case loss (arising from a large investor
   law suit) is $40 million. The expected fees it will receive from investors for the funds
   under administration are $12 million per year and administrative costs are expected to be
   $5 million per year. Estimate the before-tax RAROC? Also explain the two different
   ways in which RAROC can be used?
2. Why is there an add-on amount in Basel I for derivatives transactions? “Basel I could be
   improved if the add-on amount for a derivatives transaction depended on the value of the
   transaction.” How would you argue this viewpoint?
3. “A long forward contract subject to credit risk is a combination of a short position in a
   no-default put and a long position in a call subject to credit risk.” Explain this statement.

 

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Management Accounting

Multiple choices:

1. If the variable cost(VC) be Rs 5 and the sales revenue(SR) be Rs 8 then the V/V ratio is given

by

1. 1.6
2. 3
3. 40
4. 0.625
5. Re-order level =
6. Minimum level + (normal usage * average delivery time)
7. (Daily usage + lead time) * safety stock
8. (Daily usage * lead time) + average stock
9. (Average stock level – minimum level)/2
10. Acid test ratio is the ratio between
11. Quick assets and current liabilities
12. Net credit sales and average debtors
13. Cost of goods sold and average inventory
14. None
15. In select account standards AS-17 is a
16. Related party disclosure
17. Segment reporting
18. Discontinuing operation
19. Interim financial reporting
20. Ledger is
21. A kind of payment
22. A kind of strategy
23. A book in which bank accounts are kept
24. It is a receipt of selling
25. Which of the following industries does not use process costing?
26. Oil refineries
27. Distilleries
28. Sugar
29. Chemical
30. Aircraft manufacturing
31. The demand curve is also called the
32. Total revenue curve
33. Marginal revenue curve
34. Average revenue curve
35. Marginal cost curve
36. Profit curve
37. To decrease the Break Even Point one must
38. Increase the fixed Cost
39. Decrease the unit contribution
40. Decrease the selling price
41. Increase variable Cost
42. Decrease fixed Cost
43. Rent to be paid for a factory premises is an example of
44. Discretionary Cost
45. Programmed Cost
46. Future Cost
47. Committed Cost
48. Opportunity Cost
49. Performa statements are otherwise called as
50. Master budget
51. Capital budget
52. Strategic plan
53. Rolling budget
54. There is no such budget

 

Part Two:

1. Define ‘Liquidity Ratio’.
2. Define ‘Debt Equity’ ratio.
3. What do you mean by ‘Batch costing’?
4. Explain ‘The margin of safety’.

 

Based on the financial analysis, what recommendation would you, as the finance manager, make to the CEO of PCL?

1. Managerial accounting information is sometimes described as a means to an end whereas
   financial accounting information is described as an end in itself. In what sense is this true?
   2. Absorption and variable costing are two different methods of measuring profit and valuing
   inventory. Explain.

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Database Management Systems

Multiple choices:

1. The normal language of database is:
2. PHP
3. SQL
4. C++
5. Java
6. DDL, a database system language:
7. Creates table
8. Manipulates table
9. Cannot work with table
10. None
11. Symbol for one to one relationship is………………………………………………………
12. HDBMS stands for:
13. Hello DBMS
14. Hierarchical DBMS
15. Hyper DBMS
16. High DBMS
17. In Anti joining of R►S means ……………………………………………………………

Part Two:

1. What are “Foreign Keys”?
2. Differentiate between ‘DBMS’ and ‘RDBMS’.
3. Write the syntax to insert charts into a table from another table.
4. What are ‘Armstrong’s Axioms’?

 

1. Elaborate the testing of Serializability techniques with example.
2. Explain the working of lock manager.
3. What is deadlock? How is a deadlock detected? Enumerate the method for recovery from the

deadlock.

4. Explain why a transaction execution should be atomic. Explain ACID properties, considering the

following transaction.

Ti: read (A);

A : = A- 50;

Write (A);

Read (B);

B : = B + 50;

Write (B)

1. The HR manager has decided to raise the salary for all the employees in department number 30
   by 0.25. Whenever any such raise is given to the EMPLOYEES, a record for the same is
   maintained in the EMP-RAISE table. It includes the employee number, the date when the raise
   was given and the actual raise. Write a PL/SQL block to update the salary of each employee and
   insert a record in the EMP-RAISE table.
2. Retrieve the salesman name in ‘New Delhi’ whose efforts have resulted into atleast one sales
   transaction.

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Information Technology and Management

Multiple Choices:
1. Computer crime is defined by:
a. AITP
b. SWAT
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
2. Prototyping is sometimes called:
a. ASD
b. RSD
c. RAD
d. None of the above
3. Virtual reality is also called:
a. Computer-simulated reality
b. Neurons
c. Software robots
d. Telepresence
4. A trackball is a stationary device related to the:
a. Keyboard
b. Joystick
c. Mouse
d. All of the above
5. Hand-held microcomputer devices known as:
a. Personal digital assistance
b. Super computers
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
6. KMS stands for:
a. Knowledge memory systems
b. Knowledge making system
c. Knowledge management systems
d. None of the above
7. A basic system component of information systems is:
a. Memory
b. Processing
c. Storage
d. All of the above
8. How many characters uses the MICR system?
a. 15 characters
b. 18 characters
c. 24 characters
d. 14 characters
9. EBCDIC stands for:
a. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code
b. Extended Binary Coded Decimal Instruction Code
c. Extended Binary Coded Data Interchange Code
d. Electronic Binary Coded Data Interchange Code
10. The smallest element of data is called:
a. Byte
b. Bit
c. Giga byte
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Write a note on ‘Cache Memory’.
   2. What do know about ‘Assembler’?
   3. Write a note on ‘Optical Character Recognition’.
   4. Explain the term ‘Electronic commerce’.
2. Why has eBay become such a successful and diverse online marketplace? Visit the eBay website
   to help you answer, and check out their many trading categories, specialty sites, international
   sites, and other features.
3. Why do you think eBay has become the largest online/offline seller of used cars, and the largest
   online seller of certain other products, like computers and photographic equipment?
4. Why have developments in IT helped to increase the value of the data resources of many
   companies?
   2. How can companies use IT to meet the challenges of data resources security?1. What potential security problems do you see in the increasing use of intranets and extranets in
   business? What might be done to solve such problems? Give several examples.
5. Suppose you are a manager being asked to develop e-business and e-commerce applications to
   gain a competitive advantage in an important market for your company. What reservations might
   you have about doing so? Why?

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Industrial Relations

Part One:
True and False:
1. Central Board of Workers Education (CBWE) was set up in 1986.
2. The joint Departmental Councils are encouraged to hold annual meetings, a scheme which
was initiated in 1970.
3. The lockout of the pilots was lifted from 3rd November, 1974.
4. The Employers federation of India formed in 1936.
5. Indian Jute Mills Association (IJMA) was formed in 1887.
6. All India Trade federation was established in 1921.
7. In India, the foundation of modern industry was laid between 1850 and 1860.
8. HMS stands for Hind Maha Sabha.
9. A feature of Indian trade unionism is not the multiplicity of unions.
10. Standing Orders may provide as to who should enquire.
Part two:
1. Who are ‘Blue Collor’ workers?
2. What are the basic causes of ‘Grievances’?
3. Write a note on ‘Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972’.
4. Explain ‘Walker’s Model’ for worker’s participation in management.

 

1. Similar problems which caused this strike in 1960 were satisfactorily resolved in the past in Bombay Electricals. Why could not the differences be settled in 1960?
2. Inspite of high earnings by employees, why did they choose to go on strike for a relatively small
   difference of Rs 30/- in their demand preceding the strike?
3. Was the company’s decision to enter the tractor segment right, when KCP had already captured
   the market?
   2. Had you been Abraham, how would you tackle the present situation?1. What is inflation? Compare its role with money and the real earning of the Industrial workers.
   Use appropriate data to justify your answer.
4. How can the bargaining affect the workers as well as the firm? “It is a method of wage fixation.”

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Human Resource Development & Training

Multiple choices:
1) Who used the term ‘Intellectual Capital’ for the first time?
a. Alvin Toffler
b. Tseng and Jiao
c. J K Galbraith
d. Rouibah and Ould-al
2) Organizational behavior is a:
a. Micro perspective
b. Macro perspective
c. Neo perspective
d. Latent perspective
3) Ethics in H R Development means:
a. Accepted behavior
b. Rejected behavior
c. Unexpected behavior
d. There is no term like, in HRD
4) What does ‘s’ stands for in COPS for conducting a detail HR analysis?
a. Shell
b. Swap
c. System
d. Site
5) In generic HRD model, training and development lies:
a. At bottom level
b. In middle level
c. A top level
d. Not a part of this model
6) Under the development part, the instructors use to focus on:
a. Skills of the learner
b. Process of the learner
c. Concepts of the learner
d. No focus
7) Gap is:
a. The difference between competency model and current state
b. The difference between ideal state and current state
c. The difference between ideal state and competency model
d. None of the above
8) According to Hamblin there are …… levels at which evaluation can be made.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 7
9) Norm reference tests are:
a. Tests designed to measure degree of learning
b. To maximize the individual differences an for comparing them with externals.
c. To test the learner has mastered the taught one or not.
d. None of the above
10) David Kolb gave the idea that learning is a:
a. Linear process
b. Slow process
c. Unlimited process
d. Circular process
Part Two:

1. Explain PCMM (People Capability Maturity Model) approach for HRD.
   2. Write a short note on ‘HRD Strategy model’.
   3. Explain the utility of ‘Training Process Pyramid’.
   4. What are ‘on-the-job’ and ‘off-the-job’ techniques of training and development?

 

1. What in your view are the central human resources issues involved in this case?
   2. What strategy should Mr. Tanmoy Deb develop and implement for improving the present
   system?
2. Why a high performer like Mr. Mohan decided to leave the organization he has been long
   part of?
3. Do you think Mr. A.P. Mohan took the right decision to leave the organization? What would
   you have done if you were in his shoes?1. Trace out the changing paradigm of growth. Why has human resource development assume
   greater importance in present time?
4. Training effectiveness is crucial for the success of the training department. How will you
   ensure it?

 

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Enterprise Resource Planning

Multiple Choices:
1. Enterprise Resource Planning is
a. Computer System
b. Manufacturing organization
c. Method of effective planning of all the resources in an organization
d. None of the above
2. Enterprise Resource Panning vendors are those people
a. Who are experts in administration and management of projects
b. Who have developed the ERP packages
c. Who uses the ERP system
d. None of the above
3. Interviewing and cost justification is tool and technique of
a. Design step of ERP
b. Implementation step of ERP
c. Requirement analysis of ERP
d. Planning step of ERP
4. Support re-engineering processes to fit the software systems best practice is approach of
a. Re-engineering approach
b. Customizing approach
c. Rational approach
d. None of the above
5. Process of tracking customer contacts and providing the customer with a price quote is
a. Inventory sourcing
b. Sales order processing
c. Pre-sales
d. None of the above
6. The difficulty in creating an audit trial of transactions when multiple transactions use multiple
database is associated with
a. Product profitability sub-system
b. Finished goods inventory sub-system
c. Management reporting sub-system
d. Creating an audit trial sub-system
7. Differences occur between standard costs and actual costs is problem associated with
a. Accounting
b. Production
c. Purchasing / Materials Management
d. None of the above
8. MRP in Enterprise resource planning stands for
a. Maximum retail price
b. Material requirement planning
c. Management requirement planning
d. None of the above
9. Process of providing status of purchase order comes in a category of
a. Purchase order follow-up
b. Source determination
c. Determine requirement
d. Invoice verification
10. Resource failure occurs when
a. People clashes
b. Inability to communicate with the system user
c. Poor specification of requirements
d. Conflicts of people, time and project scope due to insufficient personnel
Part Two:

1. What are the advantages of the re-engineering method of implementing ERP?
   2. What are the benefits reported from implementing ERP?
   3. Write a short note on “Credit Management”?
   4. Define Material Requirements Planning?
2. What factors should it use to evaluate each of these potential hosts?
   2. What controls should be in place to monitor the hosting arrangement?
3. Identify potential sources of software?
   2. Determine five criteria you will recommend be used to evaluate each of alternative providers?

 

1. Explain in brief Sales and Marketing Modules in ERP System?
   2. What are the different development process in ERP systems and write a detailed note on it?

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Entrepreneurship Management

 

Part One:
1. According to BBC English dictionary ‘Entrepreneur’ refers to……………………………
2. Quasi or Ostensible partners are those who have already retired from active participation.(T/F)
3. The minimum number of individuals required to form a cooperative society:
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
4. WTO stands for………………………………………………………………………………….
5. MTNL stands for Metro Telephone Network Limited.(T/F)
6. Date of sealing refers to the date when:
a. Patent office endorses final approval
b. Patent office rejects the application
c. Patent office bans the use of the application
d. None of the above
7. The term copyright is associated with:
a. Artistic work
b. Medicinal work
c. Political work
d. None of the above
8. In SWOT analysis SWOT stands for……………………………………………………….
9. VAT means Value After Tax.(T/F)
10. IDBI is a subsidiary of:
a. State bank of India
b. Reserve bank of India
c. PNB
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Explain the role of ‘Ethics’ in Entrepreneurship.
   2. What do you understand by ‘Public Limited Company’?
   3. Difference between ‘Entrepreneur’ & ‘Entrepreneur’.
   4. What is ‘Copyright’?

 

1. How could Mahesh and Raja have avoided the problems that led to the end of their partnership?
   2. Why is this situation a good example of the difficulty in maintaining partnerships between friends?
2. Is there a list of do’s and don’ts regarding employment of family members in a family business?
   2. Amit has not got down to documenting a family employment policy yet. Help him frame one.
3. Study the Second and Third All India Census on SSI and prepare a comparative analysis of the
   results of the survey.
   2. “Innovation generates entrepreneurship”, justify.

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E-Commerce

Part One:
True and False:
1. The term WWW stands for world wild web.
2. Number of levels in OSI model are 4.
3. PEP is a protocol for extending HTTP.
4. COBRA is an implementation independent language.
5. HTML stands for hyper text make up language.
6. ‘Action Time’ is the actual processing time for the service provided.
7. IPR stands for Important Property Rights.
8. Electronic Commerce intersects the domains of telecommunication, broadcasting and computing.
9. A TCP/ IP Network protocol is developed by Sun micro System.
10. NOC stands for Network Operation Center.
Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘WWW’.
   2. What is ATM technology?
   3. What do understand by ‘V market services’?
   4. Explain the ‘Application Layer’ of OSI model.

 

1. Critically evaluate the Human Resources Policies of “Titus InfoTech”.
   2. What other strategies would you suggest to reduce the attrition rate at the lower and middle
   levels?
2. What were the factors of KIT philosophy that helped the company in being successful?
   2. While were the leader is dying what could be the possible criteria for selection of a new leader in
   the algorithm?1. ‘Liability of Third-party network vendor s is must’ Justify.
   2. ‘VAN agreements are executed between a value added data communications service provider or
   VAN and a party desiring data communications services, typically for EDI.’ What are the
   necessary agreements? Elaborate.

 

Corporate Governance

1. In the second version of McKinsey’s model called “the Central model” governance chain is
   represented by
   a. Well-developed equity market & dispersed ownership
   b. Underdeveloped equity market & concentrated ownership
   c. Well-developed equity market & concentrated ownership
   d. Underdeveloped equity market & dispersed ownership
   2. Corporate governance refers to a combination of law, rules, regulations and
   a. Value
   b. Wealth
   c. Voluntary practices
   d. Customer Satisfaction
   3. ____________, is one of the major tools. Corporations use to direct persuasive communication to
   target buyers & the public.
   a. Advertising
   b. Media
   c. Press
   d. None
   4. Policy adopted by the monetary authority with respect to the supply of money is called
   a. Monetary Policy
   b. Fiscal Policy
   c. Budgetary Policy
   d. Economic Policy
   5. Cash reserve requirements refer to the
   a. Purchase & Sale of government securities & other approved securities by the Central bank.
   b. Changes in bank rate by the Central Bank
   c. That portion of bank’s total cash reserves which they are statutorily required to hold with the
   RBI.
   d. The particular level of liquid ity maintained by commercial banks.
   6. This committee was set up in January 1995 to identify good practices by the confederation of
   British Industry (CBI)
   a. The Paul Ruthman Committee
   b. The Greenbury Committee, 1995
   c. Cadbury Committee, 1995
   d. The Hampel Committee,1995
   7. ______________, plays a significant role in the growth of the corporate sector by providing them
   finance for their Operations.
   a. Investors
   b. Bank
   c. Organization
   d. None
   8. The first stock market scam was one which involved both the bond and equity markets in India.
   a. MNC’s efforts at Consolidation of ownership, 1993
   b. Vanishing Companies Scam, 1993-94
   c. M. S. Shoes, 1994
   d. Harshad Mehta scam, 1992
   9. Debt purchasers provide finance in return for a promised stream of payments & a variety of other
   convenants pertaining to corporate behavior, such as the value and risk of corporate assets. These
   are called
   a. Concentrated Debt
   b. Diffused Debt
   c. Creditor Incentives
   d. Debt Collection
   10. A person having control over the direction, conduct, management or superintendence of then
   affairs of a company is called
   a. Director
   b. Co- director
   c. Board members
   d. None
   11. A director who is not duly appointed but acts as a director is known as a
   a. Fraudulent Person
   b. De Facto
   c. De Jure
   d. None
   12. This type of auditors are usually referred to as a CPA (Certified Public Accountants) firms
   a. Internal auditors
   b. Independent auditors
   c. Government auditors
   d. None
   13. To introduce corporate governance practices in the banking sector the recommendations of the
   working group of directors of financial Institutions known as the
   a. Ganguly Group
   b. Policy Implication
   c. Government Control
   d. Withdrawal effects
   14. It is a manipulative method where one buy the power or the influence of others persons in order
   to satisfy his selfish need.
   a. Coercion
   b. Tax Evasion
   c. Bribery
   d. Insider Trading
   15. This model supports the idea of multiple interests of stakeholders rather than shareholders interest
   alone
   a. The Social Entity Theory
   b. Trusteeship Model
   c. The Pluralistic Model
   d. Social Responsibility
   16. This policy was released in August by the Ministry of Environment & Forests (MOEF) for
   Public discussion
   a. The National Environment Policy, 2004
   b. Draft Policy
   c. Biodiversity Conservation
   d. Forest & wildlife Conservation
   17. Out of the following which Committee appointed to examine all current Capital market
   regulations & to suggest amendments to them
   a. SEBI
   b. Dhanuka Committee
   c. Primary Market Reforms
   d. None
   18. Out of the following which one sentence is the true
   a. It lays down the framework for creating long-term trust between companies & the external
   provides of capital
   b. It rationalizes the management and monitoring of risks a firm faces globally
   c. It does not limits the liability of the top management 7 directors by carefully articulating the
   decision making process
   d. It never ensures the integrity of financial reports.
   19. Out of the following which is the responsibility of an Auditor
   a. Whether loans & advances made by the company on the basis of security have been properly
   secured.
   b. Whether loans & advances made by the company have been shown as deposits.
   c. Whether personal expenses have been charged to revenue account
   d. He has to ensure that his work involves exercise of judgment.
   20. This theory assumes that managers are basically trustworthy and attach significant value to their
   own personal reputation
   a. Agency Theory
   b. Stewardship Theory
   c. Stakeholder Approaches
   d. Sociological Theory
2. What is clause 49?
3. Explain Board of Directors & Corporate Governance?1. Banks are also using concept of Corporate Governance. Explain why Corporate Governance is
   widely used in Banks. Also state few sound Corporate Governance Practices.
4. What is ethics & state why ethics is necessary in Business and also state the importance and need
   of business ethics?

 

 

Business Communication

Multiple choices:
1. __________is an essential function of Business Organizations:
a. Information
b. Communication
c. Power
d. None of the above
2. Physiological Barriers of listening are:
a. Hearing impairment
b. Physical conditions
c. Prejudices
d. All of the above
3. Which presentation tend to make you speak more quickly than usual:
a. Electronic
b. Oral
c. Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
d. None of the above
4. What is the main function of Business Communication:
a. Sincerity
b. Positive language
c. Persuasion
d. Ethical standard
5. The responsibilities of the office manager in a firm that produces electronics spares is:
a. Everything in the office runs efficiently
b. Furniture and other equipment in the office is adequate
c. Processing all the incoming official mail and responding to some
d. All of the above
6. Labov’s Storytelling Model based on:
a. Communication through speech
b. Language learning
c. Group Discussions
d. None of the above
7. Diagonal Communication is basically the:
a. Communication across boundaries
b. Communication between the CEO and the managers
c. Communication through body language
d. Communication within a department
8. How to make Oral Communication Effective?
a. By Clarity
b. By Brevity
c. By Right words
d. All of the above
9. Direct Eye contact of more than 10 seconds can create:
a. Discomfort & Anxiety
b. Emotional relationship between listeners and speakers
c. Excitement
d. None of the above
10. Encoding means:
a. Transmission
b. Perception
c. Ideation
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Define Communication. How can you classify Communication?
   2. Explain ‘Space Language’.
   3. Differentiate between good listeners and bad listeners.
   4. What are the different types of Business Reports?
   5. What is Synopsis?

 

1. What should Mr. Sharma have done to avoid the misunderstanding?
2. Discuss the main features involved in this case.
3. Suppose you are working as an operator in a call centre in India and receiving calls from
   Americans and Londoners. How would you handle such calls?
4. Do you agree with the view such abusive happenings on the telephone do not have any impact
   on business?1. What is meant by Communication Barriers? How and why do they occur? What can be done to
   overcome the Barriers to Communication?
5. Define and explain the term Negotiation and also briefly explain the phases of Negotiation.

 

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SAP Technical Consultant

 

Multiple choices:
1. Which one of the following is a key component of SAP Web application system?
a. J2EE
b. VB.Net
c. Java
d. SQL
2. SAP has optimized the data flow between the _______and the _______servers.
a. SPDD, SPAU
b. Presentation , application
c. QAS, PRD
d. None of the above
3. ___________ is the SAP transaction that is used to generate the ABAP loads.
a. SGEN
b. IMG
c. QAS
d. SPAU
4. __________ are areas of temporary storage that help to access more rapidly data and execute
ABAP programs faster.
a. RAM
b. Buffer
c. ROM
d. All of the above
5. Which Roadmap provides a methodology for the implementation of global customer solution?
a. Technical Roadmap
b. Solution Roadmap
c. Implementation Roadmap
d. Global Template Roadmap
6. The rectangular boxes that are found on nearly every initial and output screen in the SAP
system are referred as_______________
a. Storage Folder
b. Central Work Area.
c. Check Boxes
d. Data Fields
Examination Paper: SAP Consultancy
IIBM Institute of Business Management 2
7. While entering user profile data, the third step is to____________
a. Go to the menu bar
b. Clicks the defaults tab
c. Maintain user profile popup screen
d. Click the save button
8. SAP R/3 is packages of integrated applications called _______ that record and track the
activities and costs of doing business.
a. Module
b. Tracker
c. Project
d. Controller
9. What allows you to adjust the size and shape of the applications window by clicking and
dragging it into a new position?
a. System Data Field
b. Frame Grabber
c. Message Field
d. None of the above
10. The wait time should fall under 10% of the total _______.
a. Load Time
b. Response Time
c. Database Time
d. Enqueue Time
True & False:
1. SAP’s standard smart-card authentication allows a “safer” authentication process.
2. Proof of obligation is not necessary for confirming and guaranteeing.
3. A digital signature is equivalent to the traditional hand written signature on paper documents.
4. The purpose of the project preparation is to provide initial planning and preparation for SAP
project.
5. CCMs stand for Common Center Management System.
6. HTTP is the default protocol for transferring files on the World Wide Web.
7. To send a short message to another SAP user on the same system, select system short
message from any screen.
8. ABAP processor is a free work process, making optimal use of system resources and
balancing the system load.
9. Debugger is a task similar to running a program.
10. Application Link & Enables (ALE) not allows integration between applications in distributed
Systems.

1. Explain the Process for starting & stopping SAP systems.
2. Distinguish between SPADD and SPAPU.
3. Define ‘Lightweight Directory Access Protocol’.
4. Explain the Repository Information System?

 

1. Explain Installation and Planning Concepts of SAP.
   2. Describe the ABAP dictionary in SAP System.
   3. What is SAP upgrade Project & explain its key success factors?
   4. Explain the different types of buffering table.1. Explain the steps for the creation process of a Web Dynpro Application.
   2. Explain the User Master Record Fids and its available options. Briefly.

 

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SAP-R/3

Multiple choices:
1. Which feature or element not found on every screen of the SAP application window?
a. Title bar
b. Central work area
c. Standard toolbar
d. None of the above
2. SAP Easy Access Screen contains a set of folders called________________.
a. Favorites Menu
b. System Menu
c. Environment Menu
d. Standard Toolbar
3. What will be display when the system shortcut menu icon clicked?
a. Service order
b. Short menu of command
c. System menu
d. Small application bar
4. How much buttons contain in application toolbar for issuing commands that are related to
these screen elements?
a. 6
b. 7
c. 8
d. 9
5. The ____________allows to adjust the size & shape of the application window by clicking &
dragging it into a new position.
a. Frame grabber
b. Panel
c. Frames
d. Selection box
6. What will be highlight when a selection box is clicked?
a. Selected box
b. Object codes
c. List icon
d. Frame
Examination Paper: SAP Consultancy
IIBM Institute of Business Management 5
7. The procedure begins at the ____________in the application toolbar of the table.
a. Delete button
b. Choose layout screen
c. Layout setting button
d. None of the above
8. ___________are created in SAP 4.7 to track the activities & cost of installing and maintaining
technical equipment.
a. Maintenance Processing
b. Logistics
c. Plant maintenance
d. All of the above
9. Which screen contains seven data fields in which the e-mail & its attached documents are
described?
a. Document content sub screen
b. Attribute sub screen
c. Create & send document screen
d. Recipient sub screen
10. The Links for all the transaction in the financial and controlling modules which are use to
manage budgets and costs are hold by________.
a. Accounting folder
b. User menu folder
c. Favorites folder
d. Logistics folder
True & False:

1. Root folder is known as SAP menu.
   2. Click the customizing of local layout button to display its menu, then follow the menu path
   (customizing of local layout < new visual design)
   3. The title bar displays the name of the screen in the application window.
   4. The command buttons execute internal tasks.
   5. SAP R/3 is a package of integrated application.
   6. The reporting transaction creates & change objects in their database records.
   7. Business workplace screen helps to create and send new email.
   8. The create document and send screen appears when click the mail recipient button.
   9. In saving a display variant, second step of procedure is optional.
   10. Line item fields are strings of fields in which you can enter several bits of coded &
   short text data about an object.1. What is SAP R/3?
   2. Explain “Central Work Area”.
   3. How many formats of Data entry field appears on initial screen?
   4. Define Plant Maintenance.
2. How can you change the names of folders & links in your favorites folders at any time?
   2. How can you use keystrokes to execute commands on objects in your favorites folders?
   3. How to customizing the SAP easy access screen?
   4. What is a procedure to filtering a line item report? Explain with example.
3. With the help of proper diagram explain the steps use to customizing with the new visual
   design command.
   2. Explain the elements which are found on every screen of the SAP application window.

 

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Business Law

Multiple choices:
1. A condition cannot be treated as warranty in the following circumstances and waiver is implied:
a. Where the buyer waives a condition or elects to treat the breach of warranty.
b. Where a contract of sale is not severable and the buyer has accepted the goods or part thereof.
c. The breach of any condition to be fulfilled by the seller can only be treated as a breach of
warranty, unless provided for otherwise in the contract.
d. Obstructs or prevents the other party from fulfilling his part of promise.
e. All of the above.
2. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. An agreement with or by the minor is void and inoperative.
b. A contract entered by the guardian for the beneficiary of a minor is not valid.
c. A minor by misrepresenting his age can enter into a valid contract.
d. A minor can create contractual obligations as a partner.
e. A minor can ratify all invalid acts as valid on attaining majority at any time.
3. Which of the following will amount to material alteration of a cheque?
a. When the holder crosses an uncrossed cheque.
b. When the holder converts general crossing into special crossing by adding the name of the
banker on he face of the cheque.
c. When the holder converts special crossing into general crossing by erasing the name of the
banker in the cheque.
d. When the holder adds the word “Not negotiable.”
e. When a banker crosses an uncrossed cheque or converts a general or special crossing to
another banker or to himself.
4. The right of transfer may be denied in case of private companies as?
a. The company may not refuse to register the transfer or transmission by operation of law.
b. The company may not refuse to register the transfer by virtue of power conferred on it by the
articles or otherwise.
c. The articles of the company contain restrictions as to transferability of shares.
d. The power of refusal to register a transfer is exercised with malafide intention and against the
interest f the company.
e. None of the above.
Semester II Examination Papers
5. Which of the following is true?
a. A minor may be enrolled as a member if he acquires shares through transfer.
b. A company cannot become a member of another company.
c. A partnership firm can become a member of any other company.
d. Where an official liquidator is appointed in respect of certain shares, he can be registered as a
member.
e. None of the above.
Part Two:
What is ‘Restitution’?
Who are ‘Lunatic persons’?
What is ‘coercion’?
What are ‘contingent contracts’?
What is ‘Doctrine of restitution’?

1) ‘A’ delivered gold to a jeweler for making certain ornaments. Jeweler refused to deliver the
ornaments when ready. He claims that until ‘A’ pays him the charges for making the ornaments
and also the sum of Rs. 1,000, which was due to him from ‘A’ on certain earlier transactions, he
is entitled to retain ornaments. Advice ‘A’.
2) A sells a radio to ‘M’, a minor, who pays for it by cheque. ‘A’ indorses the cheque to ‘B’ who
takes it in good faith and for value. The cheque is dishonored on presentation. Can ‘B’ enforce
payment of the cheque against ‘A’ or ‘M’?
3) Mr.Nandkani is a shopkeeper. He agreed to sell to Mr. James some kind of oil described as
“foreign refined rape on warranted only equal to sample”. The samples contained an admixture
of hemp oil and the oil delivered was adultered in the same way .After purchasing, Mr.James
found that the oil was not rape oil. What is the right of Mr. James as a Purchaser?
4) Mr. Shamrao Garud, being entitled to an estate for the life of Me, Dada Kokil agrees to sell Dada
estate to Mr.R. N Upalekar. But Mr. Dada Kokil was dead at the time of agreement and Mr.
Garud as well as Mr. Upalekar was not having the knowledge of the fact .Is this agreement void
on the ground of mistake, misrepresentation or fraud?

Section 4(1) of the Sale of Goods Act says that a contract of sale of goods is a contract whereby
the seller transfers or agrees to transfer the property and Sub-section (3) deals with an agreement
to sell where the transfer of property in goods take place at future time.” Distinguish a sale from
an agreement to sell.
“Section 14 of the Act says that the making, acceptance or endorsement of a promissory note, _
bill of exchange or cheque is completed by delivery, actual or constructive.” Define and explain
the term “Negotiation” as per the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881.

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Renewable Energy

Part One:
1. Which of the following works as the promotional and financial arm of the Ministry?
a. DNES
b. SSSNIRE
c. IREDA
d. MNES
2. _________________ is a research that focus on producing more energy than consumed by
combining highly efficient design in fuel – cell.
a. Zero Energy Building
b. Hydrogen Technology
c. Nano Technology
d. LED Development
3. MNES has been promoting RD & D to tap the energy namely:
a. Biomass
b. Solar Air Heating
c. SPV Power Plant
d. Hydrogen Energy
4. India is the fifth largest producer of ______________ in the world with power generation
capacity of 126MV:
a. Wind Power Energy
b. Small Hydro Power
c. Ocean Energy
d. Biomass Power
5. WEA stands for _________________________.
6. MNES stands for ________________________________________.
7. It is only possible when biogas from fodder grasses without going through the bullock route:
a. Fodder – Biogas – Engine
b. Fodder – Bullock
c. Wood – Producer Gas – Engine
d. Bullock – Biogas – Fodder
8. NABARD is providing the facility of automatic refinancing to banks as an:
a. Incentive for Solar Photovoltaic’s
b. Incentive for Biogas
c. Incentive for Solar Thermal
d. Incentive for Small Hydro Power
9. Give any two objectives of Cost Management System?
10. Uncertain technological track record is which of the following barrier in Solar Power
Development:
a. Market Related
b. Institutional
c. Economical & Technological
d. Ecological
Part Two:
1 Write a short note on ‘Wind Turbine System’.
2. Describe some policies of Small Scale Industries.
3. Write a short note on ‘Small Hydro Power? State its investment opportunities.
4. What are the problems in Renewal Energy Sources?

1. How to Generate Solar Energy using Naptha? Explain.
2. What is Renewable Energy and state the Sustainable Development to it?
   2. How could renewable energy help in providing opportunities to the youth?
   3. Write a note on ‘Adoption of Renewable Energy’.
   4. What are the issues in harnessing Renewable Energy?1. Write the key features of Renewable Energy Technologies.
   2. Give the Pros & Cons of Solar Power.
   3. State the issues involved in mainstreaming of Renewable.

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Energy Management

Part One:
1. The audit that focused on evaluating the energy consumption pattern is a:
a. Preliminary Audit
b. Sound Energy Audit
c. Detailed Audit
d. Efficiency Audit
2. Energy Crops are also known as _________________.
3. When plant matter is heated but not burnt to break into solid, liquid and gas is which type of
convention:
a. Chemical Convention
b. Thermo chemical Convention
c. Biochemical Convention
d. Residual Convention
4. An example of a simple passive space heating technology is the ________________.
5. To make solar design effective which of the following is not followed?
a. A building should have large areas of glazing facing the sun.
b. Certain features should be adopted for equal distribution of heat throughout the building.
c. A building should be sufficient to allow heat storage.
d. A building should have proper landscaping to allow direct sun to the building.
6. It is the most common type of solar panel for full solar power systems:
a. Unframed Rigid Panels
b. Solar Roofing
c. Flexible Panels
d. Framed Rigid Panels
7. Low Peak Coincidence Factor is which of the following barrier for Solar Power Development
a. Market Related Barrier
b. Institutional Barrier
c. Economical & Technological Barrier
d. Ecological Barrier
8. LEED is a _________________________________.
9. ________________ is a semi – autonomous body within the OECD.
10. SRP stands for ______________________.
Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘Energy Consumption’.
   2. Differentiate between Space Heating and Space Cooling.
   3. Write a short note on ‘Crop Drying’.
   4. What is a ‘Solar Thermal Program’?
2. Write a note on ‘Piecemeal Ratemaking.
   2. What are the advantages of the Acquisition of Entergy Corp’s by Mississippi Public Service
   Commission?
3. Write a note on ‘Electricity Generation in India’.
   2. What are the various substitutes adopted by government to prevent Environmental Pollution?
4. Write a note on the components of Energy sector.
   2. What are the recent trends of Clean Energy?
   3. What is Biomass? State the different kinds of Biomass.

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Risk Management and Insurance

Multiple Choices:
1. HMOs charge employers a monthly fee called:
a. A coverage fee
b. The pro rata plan fee
c. The subrogation payment
d. The capitation payment
2. Which of the following alternatives is not a typical dividend option?
a. Cash
b. A lifetime income annuity
c. Reduction of the next premium
d. Accumulation of the next premium
3. Choose the True statement about industrial life insurance.
a. It is less expensive than ordinary life insurance
b. It is more expensive than ordinary life insurance
c. It is also called discount life insurance
d. It is widely used in estate plans
4. Replacement cost at the time of loss less depreciation is the definition of:
a. Actual cash value
b. Fair market value
c. The maximum covered loss
d. The maximum replacement of loss
5. Assets that are readily available to pay claims are called:
a. Admitted assets
b. Accepted assets
c. Real assets
d. Standard operating assets

6. Stare demises means:
a. All things considered
b. Innocent parties prevail
c. It is impolite to stare
d. To stand by decisions
7. In most states the insurance commission is:
a. Impeached
b. Elected
c. Appointed by the government
d. Appointed by the governor
8. The federal law that promotes a safe working environment for workers is:
a. OSHA
b. CERCLA
c. Equal Opportunities Act
d. Superfund
9. The organization that collects data on insurance applicants is the:
a. CBS
b. MIB
c. CIA
d. FCAS
10. The percent of uninsured Americans in 2001 was about:
a. 14 percent
b. 2 percent
c. 4 percent
d. 10 percent
Part Two:

1. What are Moral and Morale hazards?
   2. What do you understand by ‘Subsidization’?
   3. What are ‘Waiver’ & ‘Estoppel’?
   4. Write a short note on ‘Patient’s bill of rights.

 

1. Do you think that Sparkler Mutual should pay for the loss? Explain your reasons.
   2. Did the family’s absence affect the chance of loss in this case?
2. What arguments would you make if you were planning the legal defense of Total Power and
   Light Company?
   2. If you were on the jury in this case, would you award a judgment for damages to Jones? Explain
   your reasons.
3. If you were a large business with $ 10 million of property, would you want your primary
   insurer to purchase reinsurance? Explain your reasons. Would you prefer to deal with a small
   primary insurer who reinsured your risk or a large primary unsurer who did not purchase
   reinsurance?
   2. Do you think a college education is necessary to perform the following occupations
   effectively?
   a. Life insurance agent
   b. Loss adjuster
   c. Property insurance underwriter
   d. Actuary

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International Trade

Multiple Choices:
1. _________is beneficial between two nations that have strong markets in two different sectors.
a. Economic Growth
b. International Trade
c. Trade Integration
d. Trade Diversion
2. What is the full form of UNCTAD?
a. United Nation Conference on Trade and Development
b. Union Nations Committee of Trade and Development
c. Union Nations Conference on Trade and Development
d. None of the above
3. ______is fixed through negotiation between the importing country and the exporting country.
a. Tariff Quota
b. Bilateral Quota
c. Mixing Quota
d. Unilateral Quota
4. Under which Act Reserve Code Number is required?
a. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
b. Custom Act
c. Export Import Control Act
d. Foreign Trade Act
5. Which policy of the government will have a direct bearing on the exchange rate of the country?
a. Fiscal Policy
b. Instrument of Trade Policy
c. Monetary Policy
d. Both ‘a’ & ‘c’
6. Which scheme helps the exporters in procuring imported raw materials?
a. IES
b. C.C.S.
c. IRS
d. None of the above

7. Which of the following factor affecting the Exchange rate?
a. Purchasing power Parity
b. Exchange Control
c. Balance of Payments
d. All of the above
8. The system of permitting the currencies to move within a band is called___________.
a. Snake in the tunnel
b. Turtle Device
c. UNCTAD
d. None of the above
9. Periodic, as often as daily devaluations of pre-announced magnitude means________.
a. Managed Float Regime
b. The crawling Peg Regime
c. Single currency Peg
d. Composite currency Peg
10. The Export Policy of Government of India can be divided into_______ distinct phases.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Part Two:

1. Write a brief note on “INTERNATIONAL MONETARY FUND”.
   2. Write the components of the Uruguay Round Agreement.
   3. Differentiate between Export Expansion and Import Substitution.
   4. Explain the Term:-
   a. Bill of Landing
   b. Marine Insurance Policy

 

1. Discuss the problem that comforts the Tea Industry in the International sphere.
   2. How you asses would the Tea producing states has recommended a package of fiscal reliefs?
2. What are the social costs of benefits to Martin’s Textiles of shifting production to Mexica?
   2. What seems to be the most ethical action?1. Describe the current issues affecting the Exchange Rate of India.
   2. Explain briefly “New Trade Theory”.

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Insurance Management

Multiple choices:
1. India’s first insurance company was established in:
a. 1818
b. 1817
c. 1718
d. 1950
2. The word ‘Ombudsman’ in Insurance means:
a. Appointment of an official to sell the goods.
b. Appointment of an official to investigate the complaints.
c. Appointment of an official to inspect the quality of goods.
d. Appointment of an official to supervise the work force.
3. Insurance is a:
a. Contract
b. document
c. Agreement
d. Both (a) & (b)
4. ‘Asha deep’ is an Insurance:
a. Related to dreaded disease or death
b. Related to theft
c. Related to fire
d. Related to crops
5. ‘Actuary’ is:
a. A book that contains death data
b. A book that contains statics of production
c. A person expert in statics
d. A person expert in agent ship
6. ‘Snobbish’ customers are:
a. Self loving or egoist customer
b. Those who lack confidence
c. Those who take quick and immediate decision
d. Logical customers who ask a lot of questions
7. What stands for ‘I’ in AIDAS related with the knowledge of selling process?
a. Ideal
b. Idol
c. Income
d. Interest
8. Endowment Policy is:
a. Sum of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
b. Difference of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
c. Sum of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
d. Difference of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
9. In case of Suicide in India:
a. It is not a crime
b. It is a crime
c. It has no relation with the Insurance Policy
d. None of the above can be said
10. USP stands for:
a. Unique Sales Promotion
b. Unique Sales Process
c. Unique Selling Proposition
d. None of the above
Part Two:
1. Elaborate the functionality of ‘Married Women’s Property Act’ of India.
2. What are the necessary documents that have to be submitted for getting a License for agent
ship in Insurance Business?
3. Mention any two Insurance Policies for Handicapped.
4. What is ‘Charter Policy Parity’?

 

1. What are the basic factors required as you feel for further improvement in Pricing?
   2. According to some industry watches, the big players like Reliance the Tata, and the Birlas
   contribute to almost 30% of the total premium collected by GIC and its four subsidiaries. And to
   the extent, GIC and its subsidiaries could see their business shrink. Comment.
2. What according to you, ABCL should have used to claim its best insurance refunds?
3. How does Money Back Policy differ from Endowment Assurance? Which one is a better
   option and why?
4. How important is the Consumer Protection Act an in today’s world of consumerism?

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Indian Foreign Trade

Part One:
1. Which of the following is NOT an initiative for attracting a higher Quantum of FDI?
a. Further Liberalization of Foreign Trade Policy
b. Rationalisation of Labour Policy
c. Development of Infrastructure
d. Increase in Joint ventures
2. ECB stands for ______________________________
3. The textile and garment exports have been affected due to __________________
4. _____ is a popular export inductive scheme.
5. To overcome many of the problems associated with the advance licensing system this scheme
was introduced
a. Passbook Scheme
b. EPGC Scheme
c. Post Export Duty Exemption Scheme
d. Duty Drawback Scheme
6. Which of the following is a potential Export product
a. Automobile Products c. Agricultural Products
b. Leather Products d. Engineering Products
7. To give a special trust for export of computer software which of the following scheme was
developed
a. DEPB Scheme c. EOU/EPI Scheme
b. EPCG Scheme d. Duty Exemption scheme
8. It is a bilateral agreement between two countries to purchase specific amounts of each other’s
products over a specified period of time
a. Swap c. Clearing
b. Switch d. Evidence Accounts
9. TRIPS stands for ____________________________
10. Foreign Investment Promotion Board does not consist which of the following member
a. Secretary Minister of External Affairs
b. Industry Secretary – Chairman
c. Foreign Investment Minister
d. Finance Secretary
Part Two:
1. Write a short note on ‘Globalisation’?
2. Differentiate between Current Account Convertibility and Capital Account Convertibility?
3. Define ‘Deemed Exports’?
4. Discus the measures announced in the Union Budget 1990 – 00 for Trade Policy Reforms?

 

1. Give some suggestions to improve the Government and Public Relations?

Q 1. Discuss the measures adopted by the bank for promoting its retail products?
Q2. Evaluate the impact of strategies on financial performance of the firm?

1. What are the major features of EXIM policy 1992 – 97?
2. Discuss the elements of the Capital Account?
3. Describe the state’s role in Export Promotion?

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Principles and Practice of Management

Multiple Choices:
1. A plan is a trap laid to capture the ________.
a. Future
b. Past
c. Policy
d. Procedure
2. It is the function of employing suitable person for the enterprise
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Controlling
3. ___________ means “ group of activities & employees into departments”
a. Orientation
b. Standardization
c. Process
d. Departmentation
4. This theory states that authority is the power that is accepted by others
a. Acceptance theory
b. Competence theory
c. Formal authority theory
d. Informal authority theory
5. It means dispersal of decision-making power to the lower levels of the organization
a. Decentralization
b. Centralization
c. Dispersion
d. Delegation
6. This chart is the basic document of the organizational structure
a. Functional chart
b. Posts chart
c. Master chart
d. Departmental chart
7. Communication which flow from the superiors to subordinates with the help of scalar
chain is known as
a. Informal communication
b. Downward communication
c. Upward communication
d. Oral communication
8. Needs for belongingness, friendship, love, affection, attention & social acceptance are
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Ego needs
d. Social needs
9. A management function which ensures “jobs to be filled with the right people, with the
right knowledge, skill & attitude”
a. Staffing defined
b. Job analysis
c. Manpower planning
d. Recruitment
10. It is a process that enables a person to sort out issues and reach to a decisions affecting
their life
a. Selection
b. Raining
c. Reward
d. Counseling
Part Two:
1. Differentiate between ‘Administration’ and ‘Management’.
2. What were the common drawbacks in classical and Neo classical theories of management?
3. Write a short note on “Line Organization.”
4. Write a short note on ‘Acceptance theory’.

1. Critically analyze Mr. Vincent’s reasoning.
   2. If you were the professor and you knew what was going through Vincent’s mind, what would you
   say to Vincent?
2. Diagnose the problem and enumerate the reasons for the failure of D’Cuhna?
   2. What could D’Cuhna have done to avoid the situation in which he found himself?1. What is Training? Explain the different methods of training?
   2. Explain Decision-Making process of an organization?

 

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Foreign Exchange Management

Part One:
1. It is established to help countries in reconstructing their economies in the post World War II?
a. International Monetary Fund
b. World Bank
c. International Finance Corporation
d. International Development Association
2. The exchange rates which is variable between currencies and determined by demand and supply
a. Floating Exchange Rate System c. Fixed Exchange Rate System
b. Free Float d. Managed float
3. The branches which do not maintain independent foreign currency accounts but have powers to
operate the accounts falls under
a. Category A c. Category B
b. Category C d. Category D
4. _____ quote is given by a bank to its retail customers
a. Merchant Quote c. Interbank Quote
b. American Quote d. European Quote
5. To take the base rate and add the appropriate margin to it is an
a. Spot TT Buying Rate c. Spot TT Selling Rate
b. Forward TT Buying Rate d. Forward TT Selling Rate
6. Which of the following is not an assumption to Law of One Price
a. Movement of Goods c. No Transaction Costs
b. No Tariffs d. Relative Form of PPP
7. The approach in which the value of a currency is determined by the relative demand and supply
of money and, the relative demand and supply of bonds is
a. The Monetary Approach c. Exchange Rate Volatility Approach
c. The Asset Approach d. The Portfolio Balance Approach
8. Which of the following is the most important currency in the world after the collapse of Bretten
Woods
a. Yen c. US Dollar
b. Sterling d. DM
9. Option Forward is a
a. Forward Contract entered along with buying a call option.
b. Forward Contract entered along with writing a put option
c. Forward Contract entered by buying or selling at a future date.
d. Forward Contract entered by buying or selling over a period.
10. Hedging aims to
a. Increase Profits c. Reduce Costs
b. Maximize Profits d. Minimize Risk
Part Two:

1. Differentiate between Forward Rates and Expected Spot Rates?
   2. Write a note on ‘Swaps’?
   3. Differentiate between Bid Rate and Ask Rate?
   4. Write a note on ‘Interest Rate Parity’?

Q 1. How does the international asset swap mechanism work? Explain.
Q2. Discuss the various benefits of international asset swaps.

 

Q 1. What measures according to you the RBI should take to manage rupee-dollar exchange rates?
Q2. Do you think appreciation of rupee against dollar have any significant adverse impact on the Indian economy? Discuss.

1. How many types of Exposures are there in terms of Exchange Risk?
2. Write a note on
International Monetary Fund
International Finance Corporation
International Development Association

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Export Import Management:

Multiple Choices:
1. In case of goods being rejected or wrong shipments which section of customer act provides
drawback facility on the customer’s duty?
a. Section 47
b. Section 88
c. Section 74
d. Section 40
2. Risks arising out of foreign law due to________________.
a. Lack of knowledge about foreign market
b. Expensive and complex litigation
c Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. None of the above
3. Import LC is also known as ______________________.
a. Letter of Debt
b. Bills of exchange
c. Open account
d. Letter of credit
4. How much digits are there in IEC number?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
5. What is the full form of RFID?
a. Rural Fund Information Development
b. Request For International Development
c. Radio Frequency Identification System
d. Radio Frequency Internal System
6. The Export Inspection Council is a _____________________.
a. Support the export corporation
b. Responsible for the enforcement of QC
c. Administrative control of the ministry of Commerce & industry
d. Provides consultancy to export organization
7. The World Trade Organization was formed in_________________.
a. 1994
b. 1995
c. 1996
d. 1997
8. Government policies are related to__________________________.
a. Income tax
b. Sales tax
c. Both ‘a’ & ‘b’
d. None of the above
9. Clearing and forwarding agents are an important link between_______________.
a. The exporter and various other agencies
b. The importer and various other agencies
c. Import and export of goods
d. All of the above
10. Which Regional issues are important to commercial success?
a. Taxation matters
b. Importance of negotiations
c. Degree of market risk
d. All of the above
Part Two:

1. Define EDI procedure.
   2. Differentiation between “Measurement Rules” and “Pallet Rules”.
   3. Explain the Benefits of Electronic Procurement.
   4. What is DGCI$S?
   5. Define the role of intermediaries in Shipping Industry.

 

1. The public package meal companies implement service-time availability of difficulties, Explain.
   2. The introduction of third-party logistics services to the public packet meals would you put forward any firm recommendations?

 

1. Why do we say UPS is an international logistics business, and general transport logistics
   Company?
   2. To describe the international express logistics enterprises in the development prospects.1. Discuss the role of Banks in an export-import transaction.
   2. Describe briefly the steps involved in export business to succeed in the era of
   Globalization.

 

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Services Marketing

Multiple Choices:
1. The extent to which customers recognize and willing to accept this variation is called:
a. Zone of tolerance
b. Zone of fitness
c. Zone of acceptance
d. None of the above
2. SERVQUAL is used to measure service quality. (T/F)
3. SWICS stands for………………………………………………………………………………
4. Real /perceived and monetary/non monetary costs are termed as switching costs.(T/F)
5. TARP stands for ……………………………………………………………………………….
6. If the direct cost be ‘a’, overhead cost be ‘b’ and profit margin be ‘c’ then the cost based pricing
can be calculated by:
a. a+b+c
b. a-b+c
c. a/b*c
d. None of the above
7. If the percentage change in quality purchased be ‘a’ and the percentage change in price be ’b’
then elasticity is given by:
a. a*b
b. a/b
c. a+b
d. a-b
8. If the actual revenue be ‘a’ and the potential revenue be ‘b’ then the yield can be given by:
a. a-b
b. a+b
c. a/b
Examination Paper: Customer Relationship Management
8
IIBM Institute of Business Management
d. b/a
9. Reactors make adjustments unless forced to do so by environmental pressures.(T/F)
10. Least profitable customers are categorized in:
a. Platinum
b. Gold
c. Iron
d. Lead
Part Two:

1. What do you understand by “Customer Gap”?
   2. Write the difference between perceptions of service quality and customer satisfaction.
   3. Write short “SERVQUAL” survey.
   4. What are different types of “Complainer”?

 

1. How do you think Giordano had/would have to adapt its marketing and operations strategies and
   tactics when entering and penetrating your country?
   2. What general lessons can be learned from Giordano for other major clothing retailers in your
   country?
2. What did Jyske Bank change to enable it to deliver its new competitive positioning?
   2. How did Jyske Bank implement those changes?
3. Choose a firm you are familiar with. Describe how you would design an ideal service recovery
   strategy for that organization.
4. Discuss the customer’s role as a productive resource for the firm. Describe a time when you
   played this role. What did you do and how feel? Did the firm help you perform your role
   effectively? How?

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Customer Relationship Management

Multiple Choices:
1. High congruence means:
a. High probability of success
b. Low probability of success
c. Zero probability of success
d. None of the above
2. Novo Jim’s excellent resource book for Recency, Frequency and Monetary is:
a. Drilling high
b. Digging the top
c. Cutting edges
d. Drilling down
3. What stands for ‘R’ in FURPS?
a. Responsibility
b. Resource
c. Retention
d. Reliability
4. NAICS stands for:
a. National American Industry Coding System
b. North American Industry Cooling System
c. National American Industry Cooling System
d. North American Industry Coding System
5. The book ‘Reengineering the corporation’ was written by:
a. Michael Hammer and James Champy
b. Michael Champy and James Hammer
c. Michael Douglus and James Ferrari
d. Michael Ferrari and James Douglus
6. The book ‘Building the Data warehouse’ was written by:
a. Michael Doglus
b. James Champy
c. Bill Inmon
d. James Ferrari
7. Which is considered as the bible of database marketing?
a. ‘Drilling High’
b. ‘Building the Data warehouse’
c. ‘The complete database marketer’
d. ‘Drilling down’
8. CASE stands for:
a. Customer Aided Software Engineering
b. Computer Aided Software Engineering
c. Customer Aided System Engineering
d. Computer Aided System Engineering
9. What stands for ‘B’ in BBB?
a. Bail
b. Buffer
c. Bureau
d. Block
10. If high quality is one of the attribute then:
a. It will be suicidal to ship products with high DOA
b. It will be beneficial to ship products with high DOA
c. It will be suicidal to ship products with low DOA
d. It will be beneficial to ship products with low DOA
Part Two:

1. Why e- CRM is important in present life?
   2. Describe the 3 phases of ‘Waterfall Model’.
   3. Write the significance of ‘N/13 Test’ prioritization.
   4. What is ‘Life time value’ related with customer?
   5. What are ‘Warehouse data(s)’?

 

1. In what way would multi-skilling help in solving the problems of the plant?
   2. Do you think that the company’s policy of entering into term settlement is appropriate? Give
   reasons.

. What are the key application components of Mitsubishi’s CRM system? What is the business
purpose of each of them?
2. Do you approve of Mitsubishi’s approach to acquiring and installing its CRM system? Why or
why not?

1. If all the numbers are large, the project way is too big. Can you identify a logical chunk of the
   problem that would make a setup toward improving the situation? What kind of “offer” would
   you want to make to your customers as a result of completing the small chunk?
2. Who can you get for the program core team? These must be individuals who are good enough at
   their real jobs that the company can’t afford to have them take on anything new. The real test of
   serious organizational commitment is that the company can’t afford to put anyone else on the
   core team; it has to be the best.

 

 

 

Inventory Management

Multiple Choices:
1. ……………………. is IT tool used for automation data capture.
2. Stockout Level is also called the
a. Red Zone
b. Amber Zone
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
3. When classified on the basis of time period, they are
a. Supply forecast
b. Price forecast
c. Demand forecast
d. None of the above
4. The Delphi Method was developed by the Rand Corporation in the
a. 1980
b. 1970
c. 1950
d. None of the above
5. The BOM file is also called the
a. Product Structure File
b. Product Tree
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
6. What is the meaning of “Doller Days”.
a. Making money with in area
b. Management of the value of inventory and time with in area
c. Inventory control
d. Management of time
7. Weeks of supply = ……………………………………………..
8. Fastest and Expensive mode of Transport.
a. Air
b. Rail
c. Water
d. Pipeline
9. ERP systems were developed in
a. 1998
b. 1990
c. 1980
d. 1987
10. The ABC analysis is also called the ………………………………
Part Two:

1. What is “Dependent Demand”?
   2. Write short note on “Simulation Models”.
   3. What is “Time Phasing”.
   4. Write short note on “Statistical Techniques of Forecasting”.

 

1. Keeping in mind the objectives, do you think the company should go in for a highly
   integrated system? Support your answer with reasons.
   2. Discuss the relevant inventory management strategies for the company.
2. What arguments are there in favour of a formal salvage program at Advanced Management
   University?
   2. What arguments would be expected against the program?
   3. What organisational structure should Julie Joy install?
   4. Develop a salvage program for Advanced Management University.
3. At Ford Motor company, every car or truck model has its own internal website to track design,
   production, quality control and delivery processes. Suppliers and customers also have access
   to the site, and all concerned are expected to provide full supply chain information. How do
   you think this would affect the life of the middle manager?
4. Give example of some typical case where inventory management based on unscientific method
   could go wrong.

 

Quality Control

Multiple Choices:
1. A curve that shows the amount inspected by both the consumer and the producer for different
percent nonconforming values.
a. ASN curve
b. ATI curve
c. AOQ curve
d. None of the above
2. The producer’s risk is represented by the symbols:
a. Alpha
b. Beta
c. Gamma
d. None of the above
3. The International Committee of Weights and Measures revised the metric system in:
a. 1970
b. 1960
c. 1950
d. 1999
4. ASRS stands for……………………………………………………………………..
5. A recent survey of retail customers by the ……………………………………………..
6. A cause-and-effect diagram was developed by ………………………………………
7. Variables that exhibit gaps are called ………………………………
8. How many techniques used to discard data?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. None of the above
9. Deviation charts are also called:
a. Difference chart
b. Nominal chart
c. Target chart
d. All of the above
10. Dodge-Romig Tables developed by:
a. H.F. Dodge
b. H.G. Romig
c. H.K. Fleming
d. Both (a) & (b)
Part Two:
1. Write short note on “Group Chart”.
2. What is “Measures of Dispersion”?
3. What is “Collection of Data”?
4. Write short note on “Binomial Probability Distribution”.

1. If you were a part of the top management at M&M FES, how would you have involved the
   workers in the Deming programme?
   2. Do you think that M&M FES has a strategic quality management system in place?

 

1. What lessons can Indian companies take from FedEx?
   2. What are the factors that have gone against India and why did FedEx not start its operations here?1. An electrician testing the incoming the voltage for a residential house obtains 5 readings: 115,
   113, 121, 115, and 116. What is the average?
2. A single sampling plan is desired with a consumer’s risk of 0.10 of accepting 3.0%
   nonconforming product and a producer’s risk of 0.05 of not accepting 0.7% nonconforming
   product. Select the plan with the lowest sample size.

 

Management Information Systems

 

Multiple choices:
1. The BCD(binary code division) equivalent of (13)10 is
a. D
b. 1101
c. 00010010
d. 00010011
2. These systems are intended to help individual managers in their decision-making capability.
a. Management information
b. Executive support
c. Decision support
d. Office automation
3. Linux is a ……. Bit UNIX like operating system.
a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. 8
4. This is the ability of a system to repair itself, survive and grow by importing resources from its
environment and transforming them into outputs.
a. Negative entropy
b. Positive entropy
c. Entropy
d. Neutral entropy
5. A computer-based information system that increase the efficiency and productivity of
managers and office workers through document and message processing is known as
a. Decision support system
b. Management information system
c. Office automation system
d. Transaction processing system
6. Which is a multiuser operating system
a. MS DOS
b. Windows NT
c. VMS
d. None
7. More information and knowledge is an advantage of this decision-making.
a. Individual
b. Strategic
c. Operational
d. Group
8. ISDN stands for
a. International service digital network
b. International service data network
c. Integrated service digital network
d. Integrated service data network
9. MYCIN is a popular expert system used for
a. Financial planning
b. Mineral exploration
c. Mass spectrography
d. Medical diagnosis
10. This refers to the flow of information among people on the same or similar organizational
level.
a. Diagonal
b. Upward
c. Horizontal
d. Downward
Part Two:

1. What are ‘Empirical systems’?
   2. Write a note on ‘EPAB’.
   3. Differentiate between interpreter and compiler.
   4. What is ‘Virtual Reality’?

 

1. Suggest the different Decision Support System (DSS) which the management of the UFDL may
   use for strategic management of the business.
2. Suggest the external sources of information for the top management to support their decision making, justifying its position in an MIS.
3. Do you agree with the argument made by the business leaders in this case in support of the
   competitive advantage that IT can provide to a business? Why or why not?
4. What are several ways that IT could provide a competitive advantage to a business? Use some of
   the companies mentioned in this case as examples. Visit their websites to gather more
   information to help you answer.
5. Shells Company has adopted a new management information system (MIS) in its Chennai
   branch. Though the MIS promised rich benefits, Shells’ employees were quite apprehensive
   about the new change and resisted this recent move of the company. Can you suggest some
   measures or techniques for overcoming resistance to change at Shells?
6. A key element in both planning and controlling is information. What are the main attributes
   that information must possess in order to be useful to managers? And is the nature of the
   information required by managers at different levels similar or does it varies along with the
   hierarchy?

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Strategic Management

 

Multiple choices:
1. These are the plans formulated to achieve strategic goals.
a. Tactical plans
b. Strategic plans
c. Operational plans
d. Standing plans
2. This strategy facilities specialization by establishing a position of overall cost leadership,
differentiation, or both, but only within a particular segment, in an entire market.
a. Specific
b. Focus
c. Directive
d. Differentiation
3. This plan basically defines the actions of major departments and other sub-units that are required
in the execution of a strategic plan.
a. Tactical plan
b. Operational plan
c. Single-use plan
d. Long-term plan
4. This is a distinctive business or collection of related business, that can be managed relatively
independent of other businesses within the organization
a. Functional unit
b. Department unit
c. Organizational unit
d. Strategic business unit
5. These strategic plans of the organization have a time-frame exceeding five years.
a. Short-terms plans
b. Single-use plans
c. Long-term plans
d. Intermediate plans
6. Operational plans are mainly oriented towards issues that usually have a time horizon of
a. About five years
b. 3 to 5 years
c. 1 to 2 years
d. One year or less
7. These refer to the determination of the purpose and the basic long-term objectives of an
enterprise, and the adoption of courses of action and allocation of resources necessary to achieve
these aims.
a. Strategies
b. Plans
c. Policies
d. Procedures
8. These strategies provide guidelines for organizational growth
a. Organizational
b. Finance
c. Marketing
d. Growth
9. There are the three major kinds of standing plans: policies, rules, and
a. Projects
b. Programs
c. Procedures
d. Standards
10. This step in the planning process involves putting the plan into action.
a. Implementation
b. Selection
c. Evaluation
d. Review
Part Two:

1. Explain the ‘Adaptive mode’ of strategic management.
   2. What is ‘Behavioral theory’?
   3. Write about ‘Delphi technique’ of forecasting.
   4. What are the basic steps one should follow for the ‘Value chain analysis’?
2. If you were appointed as a CEO of AEL, Would you like to go for a separate design division?
   2. Critically evaluate the future plans of AEL.
   3. Do you think the target set by AEL was realistic? Comment.
   4. Comment on the management strategies adopted by AEL.
3. As Kartik, what would have been your strategies to deal with the defaulters?
   2. What steps should Kartik adopt before expansion and diversification? Would it be a wise decision
   to diversify at this stage?
4. Strategic planning involves both, the development of organizational objectives and the
   laying down of specifications about how they will be accomplished. In this context,
   outline the major steps in the strategic planning process.
5. Implementing strategies effectively is of great importance. The success of a strategy
   depends on how effectively it is implemented. Elucidate.

 

 

Management of a Sales Force

Multiple Choices:
1. ____________ is the stage in which the salesperson must discover, clarify and understand the
buyer’s needs.
a. Customer Research
b. Approach
c. Need Assessment
d. Planning
2. This outcome equates to how much information was absorbed and usually involves in giving the
trainee some type of test.
a. Reactions
b. Leaving
c. Behavior
d. Results
3. A salesperson’s ______________ is calculated by dividing the number of orders received by the
number of calls made (O/C).
a. Batting Average
b. Call Rate
c. Size of Orders
d. Direct Selling Expense
4. Such costs are incurred in connection with a single unit of sales operations.
a. Direct Costs
b. Indirect Costs
c. Overhead Costs
d. Fixed Costs
5. These are the activities that people must perform in orders to carry out the strategy.
a. Objectives
b. Strategies
c. Tactics
d. Goals
6. The highest executives in sales management is most often called:
a. Vice President of Sales
b. Branch Manager
c. Team Leader
d. District Sales Manager
7. A ____________ is someone with knowledge, experience, rank, or power that provides personal
counseling & career guidance for younger employees.
a. Mentor
b. Leader
c. Supervisor
d. Peer
8. The most widely used method of expense control in which the company reimburses sales
representatives for all legitimate business & travel costs they incur while on company business is
known as:
a. Clarity
b. Payment Plans
c. Limited Payment Plans
d. Unlimited Payment Plans
9. It is a direct monetary reward paid for performing certain duties over a period of time.
a. Salary
b. Incentives
c. Bonus
d. Pension
10. This is a performance goal assigned to a marketing unit for a specific period of time.
a. Salary Plus Bonus
b. Salary plus Commission
c. Salary Plus Commission & Bonus
d. Sales Quota

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘Strategic Account Management’.
   2. Why there is a need of a detailed data in sales?
   3. Briefly explain the nature & benefits of Territories.
   4. What is Market Specialization?
2. What should Clyde Brion do to remedy the imbalanced sales performance of Louise Shannon and
   Henry Sadowski?
3. What type of training program should Mickie Parsons recommend to Keat Markley? What’s your
   reasoning for your recommendation?1. ‘Sales Forecasting is a very difficult task’ Comment on the statement and also suggest some
   guidelines for the manager that can enhance the accuracy of the states forecast.
4. Certain Leadership & Supervisory problems are commonly encountered when managing sales
   people. State those problems which are encountered in leadership.
5. What is Training Assessment? What are the Training Program objectives?

 

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Sales and Distribution Management

Multiple Choices:
1. Out of the following which gap arise when the sales force does not have the required knowledge,
skills or capabilities to become successful on the Job.
a. Knowledge gap
b. Capability gap
c. Methods gap
d. Training gap
2. This method is used by the trainers to present more information in a short time to a large number
of participants.
a. Lecture
b. Demonstration
c. Group discussion
d. None of the above
3. It improves on traditional computer based training by making the information available to the
salesperson immediately and in a personalized manner.
a. Distance Learning
b. Interactive Multimedia Training
c. Mentoring
d. Electronic Performance Support System
4. These are preprogrammed computer packages, and are based on reality:
a. Role Playing
b. Case Studies
c. Simulation Games
d. Job Rotation
5. The responsibility which include dealing with stakeholders with fairness impartiality and equality
is known as:
a. Ethical Responsibilities
b. Legal Responsibilities
c. Economic Responsibilities
d. Voluntary Responsibilities
6. They are the shopkeepers who set up shops in the market place to cater to the needs of hundreds
of consumers.
a. Distributors
b. Wholesalers
c. Agents
d. Retailers
7. This strategy is to make sure that the product is made available in as many outlets as possible so
that anywhere the consumer go, he or she should be able to get the product of his choice.
a. Exclusive Distribution
b. Selective Distribution
c. Intensive Distribution
d. Distribution Channel
8. This is the stage of the birth of multiple retail formats to please the customer.
a. Stage of Infancy (Child hood)
b. Meeting Customer Expectations (Youth)
c. Shift in the power equation (Adulthood)
d. Consolidation (Maturity)
9. It is the identity that the store develops for itself in terms of what it has to offer the customers.
a. Positioning Strategy
b. Product Differentiation Strategy
c. Operational Strategy
d. Targeting
10. It is the most convenient size of the product that the customer can buy at a time.
a. Lot Size
b. Waiting Time
c. Choice to the consumer
d. Place Utility
Part Two:

1. What is Channel Conflict?
   2. What is an Information System? What is the purpose of Information Systems?
   3. State the different categories of Inventory.
   4. What is Electronic Data Interchange?

 

1. What improvements do you suggest in the staffing process followed by the company?
   2. Was Sunil Kumar right in getting market surveys done by the new salesperson?
2. How can you help Snow White become less dependent on the selling agents and plan its sales and
   profitability better? How can they plan their customer service efforts?1. Explain in detail the Role of Retailers.
   2. How does the availability of the Internet impact on International sales?
   3. What are the basic concepts of Sales Organization? Explain any one of those concepts.

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Production and Operation Management

Multiple choices:
1. If the number of restrictions on sources be ‘a’ and the number of restrictions on destinations be
‘b’ then with the use of ‘stepping stone procedure’, the number of ‘used cells’ will be
a. a+b+1
b. a+b+2
c. a-b-1
d. a+b-1
2. Value of smoothing coefficient ‘α’ lies
a. Between 1 and ∞
b. Between 0 and 1
c. Between -1 and 1
d. Between 1 and 2
3. Forecasting error is
a. The difference between forecasted demand and actual demand
b. The ratio of forecasted demand and actual demand
c. The difference between the standard forecast demand and the evaluated forecast demand
d. Ratio of standard forecast demand and the evaluated forecast demand
4. For forecasting the analyzers plot the demand data on a time scale, study the plot and then look
for the consistent patterns. Now what does the high noise mean to these patterns
a. Many of the point lie away from the pattern
b. Most of the points lie close to the pattern
c. All the points lie on the pattern
d. None
5. Payback period is
a. The length of time after which the production starts
b. The length of time after which the selling starts
c. The length of time required to recover the investment
d. The length of time for which firm bears replacement of the good.
6. Salvage value is the income from
a. Selling an asset
b. Buying an asset
c. Bargaining in selling
d. Price raised stock
7. On total factor basis ‘Productivity’ is given by x/y, where ‘y’ is
a. Labor + Capital +Materials
b. Labor + Capital + Materials + Energy
c. Capital
d. Capital + Materials
8. Economic efficiency is given by
a. Input /output
b. Input /100
c. (Output-input)/input
d. Output /input
9. This implies an effective management that ensures an organization’s long-term commitment to
the continuous improvement of quality.
a. Quality management
b. Strategic management
c. Total quality management
d. Operations management
10. This techniques for improving productivity involves analyzing the operations of the product or
service, estimate the value of each operation, and modifying (or) improving that operation so that
the cost is lowered.
a. Value engineering
b. Time-event network
c. Work simplifications
d. Quality circles
Part Two:
1. What are the different types of models in production and operation management?
2. Define ‘Depreciation’.
3. What do you understand by ‘Bias’?
4. What are ‘Learning curves’?

 

1. What do you recommend? Should the company implement one of the new technologies? Why or
   why not?
   2. An operations analyst suggested that company employees shared a “dump on the clerks”
   mentality. Explain.
2. Prepare a worksheet of operations activities that Harrison should inquire about this summer.
   2. If you were Harrison, what would you do? Why?1. Productivity is an important tool for mangers as it helps them to track progress toward the more
   efficient use of resources in producing goods and services. Elucidate.
   2. In additional to operations research, what are the other tools and techniques used by organizations to improve productivity?

 

 

 

Business Communication

Part One:
1) Improve the sentences in sense of attitude:
1. You failed to sign your check.
2. Your error on your tax form will result in a penalty to you.
3. Don’t drop in without an appointment. Your counselor or caseworker may be
unavailable.
4. If you have submitted a travel request, as you claim, we have failed to receive it.
2) Multiple choice:
1. In which country children are taught to look at neck while facing somebody or listening
a. India
b. Korea
c. Puerto Rican
d. Japan
2. Diagonal Communication is
a. Communication across boundaries
b. Communication between the CEO and the managers
c. Communication through body language
d. Communication within a department
3. According to Italians the circle formed with the thumb and first finger means
a. OK
b. Beautiful
c. Delicious
d. Worthless
4. In china ‘white’ color indicates
a. Peace
b. Growth
c. War
d. Mourning
5. Kinesics is a study on body movements of an individual which includes gestures, facial
configurations. This study relates to
a. Verbal communication
b. Non verbal communication
c. Informal communication
d. Formal communication
6. If the audience is of extrovert type then
a. One should write a memo and let the reader think about the proposal.
b. One should try to put the proposal more oral than writing.
c. One should put the proposal with step by step reasoning.
d. One should present the proposal quickly.
Part Two:
1. Write something about ‘Culture’ and its types.
2. What do understand by ‘Nonsexist language’?
3. Write a short note on ‘Justification report’.
4. What are ‘T’ letters?

1. Do you agree with Saleem that “Such luxuries are for big companies, but not for us”? Why or
   why not?
   2. How should Kartik handle the current situation?
2. How do you tackle this type of situation as manager?
   2. What leadership style of communication would you suggest in the following situation to deal the
   problem?
3. “Downward communication is like water streaming down from a waterfall or stream head. It
   pours easily with great force and wets a large area, while upward communication is like a small
   spurt of water shooting up from a fountain against the pull of gravity. The higher it travels, the
   more it loses its force. Elucidate.
4. In dynamic interpersonal aspects of communication interactive way of communication is
   considered to be more relevant and appropriate. Elucidate.

 

 

Sales Management

 

Multiple Choices:
1. Sales executives have responsibilities for coordination which involves
a. Individual
b. The organization
c. The company
d. None of the above
2. Who researched buyer-seller Dyads in the Life Insurance business
a. Hanri Tosi
b. McMurry
c. Arnold
d. Franklin Evans
3. Formula for calculating Gross Margin is
a. Sales – Cost of sales
b. Gross profit – Cost of sales
c. Sales – Expenses
d. None of the above
4. Coach- and – pupil method is
a. Company Information
b. Sales Technique
c. On – the – just Training
d. Both (a) & (c)
5. Term in which ratio measures the effectiveness of sales personnel in securing order
a. “Lowering Average”
b. “Batting Average”
c. “Multiple Average”
d. None of the average
6. District sales manager and planning report is called
a. Manager plan
b. District plan
c. District sales plan
d. None of the above
7. Numerical expression indicating the degree to which one or more factor associated with a given
products demand is
a. Sales Index
b. Product Index
c. Market Index
d. Company Index
8. Event that strengthens the buyers tendency to make a particular response is called
a. Reinforcement
b. Cue
c. Drives
d. Both (a) & (b)
9. 2 Types of drive in learning process are
a. Innate and learned drive
b. Mutual and learned drive
c. Innate and mutual drive
d. None of the above
10. The weak stimuli which determine when the buyer will respond
a. Cue
b. Response
c. Drive
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Write a short note on “Sales Resistance”?
   2. What is “Controlling Selling Expenses”?
   3. Write short note on “Product Line Policy”?
   4. What do you understand by “Straight-Commission Plan”?
2. Evaluate the Allen Specialty Company’s organization and plan for coordinating sales and
   advertising?
   2. How should Biggerstaff answer Halloram’s complaint?
3. Evaluate Holden’s recruiting program, suggesting whether or not the company should have
   continued its college recruiting of sales engineers?
   2. What criteria should a good sales engineer should implement to uplift the company sales?1. Write in brief about motivation of sales personnel?
   2. Write in brief about setting up a sales organization?

 

 

 

Production Planning & Control

Multiple Choices:
1. Buffer inventory is also called
a. Inventory stock
b. Safety stock
c. Transit stock
d. Buffer stock
2. Qualitative forecasting is
a. Intrinsic forecast
b. Forecasts that are generated from information that does not have a well defined analytic
structure
c. Based on random pattern
d. None of the above
3. Approach of Cycle counting in Inventory management in which the inventory item likely to be
low when new items are received
a. Zone system
b. Transaction system
c. Receiver system
d. Negative system
4. Total needed quality on week by basis is
a. Net requirements
b. Gross requirement
c. Master Schedule
d. None of the above
5. Transit inventory is
a. Inventory that is purposely placed between operations to allow them to operate independently
of one another
b. Safety stock
c. Inventory in motion from one activity to another
d. None of the above
6. Controlling of the actual activity of making a product or delivering a service is
a. Scheduling
b. Production Activity Control
c. The Pull System
d. None of the above
7. Drum-buffer-rope is
a. Shipping time buffer
b. Constraint time buffer
c. Assembly time buffer
d. Scheduling system developed for the theory of constrains and is closely related to a pull
system inherent with lean production
8. A simple visual aid which schedule work according to the priority, but also access the states of all
jobs in order is
a. Total slack
b. Critical ratio
c. Slack per operation
d. Gantt chart
9. Location of each item has its own distinctive location in stockrooms and ware-house
a. Random
b. Zoned random
c. Home base
d. None of the above
10. Economic models for causal forecasting involves
a. Examining of flow of goods and services throughout the entire economy
b. A statistical analysis of various sectors of the economy
c. Gathering of data for individual products
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Write a short note on Anticipation inventory?
   2. Define “Master production schedule”?
   3. Write a short note on Allocation?
   4. What do you understand by capacity planning?
2. Determine DRP records for all four warehouses?
   2. What will be the DRP structure for the above four warehouses?
3. How should M22 item be handled and why?
   2. Being an inventory manager, what recommendation do you suggest for inventory store of Ajay
   Company?1. Discuss about inventory management? Explain in detail about Economic order Quantity?
   2. Provide brief about Capacity Requirement Planning?

WE PROVIDE CASE STUDY ANSWERS, ASSIGNMENT SOLUTIONS, PROJECT REPORTS AND THESIS

aravind.banakar@gmail.com

ARAVIND – 09901366442 – 09902787224

 

International Marketing Management

Multiple choices:
1. International marketing includes activities that direct the flow of goods from
a. One country to one country
b. One country to another country
c. One country to multiple country
d. All of the above
2. ETC stands for
a. Expert trading companies
b. Essential trading companies
c. Export trading companies
d. None of the above
3. Till 1950-56 there was no clear exim policy and no _________ restrictions of any kind
a. Import
b. Export
c. Both a) & b)
d. None of the above
4. Tariffs have been one of the classical methods of regulating ________ trade
a. International
b. National
c. Domestic
d. None of the above
5. The world trade organization (WTO) was established on 1st January
a. 1996
b. 1995
c. 1997
d. None of the above.
6. Export documentation is a very important area in _______ management
a. International
b. Import
c. Export
d. None of the above
7. Methods of export pricing are
a. Cost plus pricing
b. Competitive pricing
c. Marginal pricing
d. All of the above
8. OCED has been a destination of a major portion of _______ exports
a. Japan
b. USA
c. India
d. UK
9. Psychographic segmentation involves grouping people in terms of
a. Attitudes
b. Life styles
c. Values
d. All of the above
10. Foreign direct investment would be permitted up to ________ in the development of the
zones
a. 100%
b. 90%
c. 38%
d. 48%
Part Two:

1. Differentiate between domestic & international marketing.
   2. Write a short note on World trade organization (WTO).
   3. Briefly describe the exim policy of India (one part of India’s export import policy).
   4. Write a short note on tariff and non tariff barriers of international trade.

 

1. Had you been the pepper exporter, what would be your short term and medium-term export
   marketing strategy in the above environment?
   2. Could you examine the weak points in this case study?
2. What are the major considerations for a firm in order to while deciding its markets entry
   strategy?
   2. To what extent direct control and ownership are critical for Smart kids export distribution
   strategy?1. What do mean by International marketing? Discuss the scope of International marketing.
   2. Describe the export documentation framework in India in detail.

 

 

Research Methodology

 

Multiple Choices:
1. Research is an art of _________ investigation
a. Technological
b. Scientific
c. Political
d. None of the above
2. Exploratory research is flexible and very ________ research
a. Variable
b. Visuals
c. Versatile
d. None of the above
3. Frame error, chance error and response error are collectively called
a. Total error
b. Non sampling error
c. Sampling error
d. Universal error
4. Hypothesis testing is sometimes called _________ analysis
a. Exploratory data
b. Confirmatory data
c. Experimental data
d. Both a) & b)
5. Execution of the project is a very important step in the ________ process
a. Questions
b. Identification
c. Research
d. None of the above
6. Thurstone scale is also known as _________ scale
a. Equal appearing interval
b. Equal alternatives interval
c. Equal alternatives item
d. None of the above
7. A ratio in which the units of numerator & denominator are not the same is termed as a
a. Class
b. Rate
c. Data
d. None of the above
8. ANOVA stands for
a. Analysis of automobiles
b. Analysis of variable
c. Analysis of variance
d. None of the above
9. One tailed & two tailed test are the part of _________ test
a. Null
b. Hypothesis
c. Alternative
d. None of the above
10. Chi – square is an important ______ test
a. Parametric
b. Probability
c. Non – parametric
d. None the above
Part Two:

1. What is ‘Sequential sampling’?
   2. Write a short note on ‘nominal scale’.
   3. Write a note on ‘Z – Test’. (One of the parametric test for hypothesis).
   4. What are the cautions to be taken on χ2 (chi square) test?
2. What according to you went wrong at the Bhopal branch?
   2. What can be done to revive the Bhopal branch?
3. What do you analyse as the main reason behind the success of Mind tree?
   2. Do you think that redefining the mission statement shows the lacunae on the part of the
   founder members of an organization? Why?1. What are the various methods of collecting statistical data? Explain in brief their merits and
   demerits.
   2. What do mean by Research design. What are basic types of research design?

 

 

Information System

Multiple Choices:
1. Stationary device related to the mouse is
a. Trackball
b. Pointing Stick
c. Electronic mouse
d. None of the above
2. Assembler language is also called
a. First generation languages
b. Second generation languages
c. Fourth generation languages
d. None of the above
3. HTML stands for
a. Hypertext Markup Language
b. Hypertext Multimedia Language
c. Hypertext Media Language
d. None of the above
4. Telecommunications networks covering a large geographic area is called
a. Local area networks
b. Broad band
c. Wide area networks
d. Virtual private network
5. Customer focused marketing process that is based on using the Internet, Intranet & Extranet to
establish two-way transactions between a business and its customers or potential customers
a. Target marketing
b. Focused marketing
c. General marketing
d. Interactive marketing
6. The obsessive use of computers, or the unauthorized access and use of networked computer
systems is
a. Hacking
b. Cyber Thefting
c. Computer crime
d. None of the above
7. Practice of sending extremely critical, derogatory and often vulgar e-mail messages or newsgroup
posting to other users on the Internet or online services is
a. Spamming
b. Flaming
c. Computer crime
d. None of the above
8. Security measures provided by computers devices that measure physical traits that make each
individual unique is
a. Biometric security
b. IT security
c. Firewall security
d. None of the above
9. Midrange systems is
a. High-end network servers
b. Dependent on network servers for Windows software, processing power and storage
c. Client network servers
d. None of the above
10. D.B.M.S help in eradicating problem of
a. Data Redundancy
b. Data Dependency
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. What are the advantages of a database management approach to the file processing approach?
   2. Write a short note on Electronic data interchange?
   3. Define Neural Networks?
   4. Define the following
   a. Prototyping
   b. End-user development
2. What are some of the key requirements for building a good data warehouse? Use Henry Schein
   Inc. as an example.
   2. What are the key software tools needed to construct and use a data warehouse?
3. What are the main business benefits that can be gained by companies that switch to VOIP
   telephone systems?
   2. What are some of the major cost factors that may limit a positive rate of return from investment
   in VOIP projects?1. What can be done to improve the security of business by using Internet?
   2. What role does database management play in managing data as a Business resources?

 

Computer Fundamentals

 

Multiple Choices:
1. Number system is of
a. 1 type
b. 2 types
c. 3 types
d. 4 types
2. A logic gate operate on
a. 1input signal to produce output
b. 1 or more input signals to produce output
c. Memory
d. None of the above
3. Cache memory is
a. Small memory
b. Volatile memory
c. Extremely fast
d. Both (a) & (c)
4. Secondary storage of a computer system is
a. Volatile
b. Non-volatile
c. Reliable
d. Non-reliable
5. Magnetic disk is
a. Memory device
b. Indirect-access storage device
c. Direct-access storage device
d. None of the above
6. Linker is a software tool that takes
a. Decision
b. Execution
c. Multiple object program files of any software
d. Both (a) & (b)
7. Computer network is a network of computer that
a. Are geographically distributed
b. Programe wise distributed
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
8. Topology refer to
a. Way in which the programs are links
b. Way in which the network’s nodes are linked together
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
9. WWW refers to
a. World wide web
b. World wise web
c. World wild web
d. World west web
10. Media center computer is
a. General purpose electronic equipment for homes
b. General purpose electronic equipment for offices
c. General purpose electronic equipment for Theaters
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Write a short notes on “The OSI Model”?
   2. Write short notes on “Touch screen”?
   3. What is “Open Source Software”?
   4. Write short notes on “Laser printers”?
2. Should businesses continue to switch to the Linux operating system on servers and mainframes?
   Why or why not?
   2. Should the IT departments of companies like Merrill Lynch contribute their software
   improvements to the open-source community for products like Linux? Explain your reasoning?
3. Would you recommend Adobe’s minimum hardware specifications to company’s manager?
   Why or why not?
   2. Describe how the business needs shaped the hardware needs in this problem
   1. What do you understand by Computer languages and state its importance?
   2. Explain in brief, what do you understand by “Application Software Packages.” Provide details
   about “Spread Sheet Package”.

 

Hospitality Management

 

True and False:
1. ADA stands for………………………………………………………………………………
2. NOT stands for National Offices of Tourism.
3. Management contracts have been responsible for the hotel industry’s rapid boom since the
1960s.
4. High-speed Internet service is free form of information technology that these businesses can
utilize.
5. One of the most crucial IT decisions is choosing the right POS system.
6. Forecasting is the prediction of present outcomes.
7. The top independent restaurant in terms of sales is the Tavern on the Green in New York
City, which opened in 1976.
8. A fine dining restaurant is one where a good selection of seat arranged is offered.
9. Terms to understand in B&I foodservices are contractors, self-operators, & Liaison
personnel.
10. Every manager must function as a leader, motivating and encouraging employees is called
spokesperson role.

1. If you owned a travel agency, what would your reaction to the reduced commission cap be?
   2. What options would you consider?
2. What are some suggestions for training staff to handle unusual circumstances?
   2. How do you ensure that suppliers are delivering the product at the price quote?
3. Looking to the future, which is the best organization structure for a theme park? A fifty-room
   resort? A mid-priced Italian restaurant? An economy 100 room hotel? A 3,000-room casino hotel?
4. Depict the main obstacles that exist when motivating low-level employees, such as the
   housekeeping staff of a hotel. Give specific examples. What is different from this situation versus
   motivating professional, such as the head chef?

 

Principles and Practices of Banking

Multiple Choices:
1. Frequency of First Tranche Returns is:
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Monthly/quarterly
d. Monthly/quarterly/half-yearly
2. An order for winding up a banking company can be issued by:
a. The High Court
b. The RBI
c. The Central Government
d. The Supreme court
3. Who shall be natural guardian in case of married minor girl?
a. Father
b. Brother in law
c. Father-in-law
d. Husband
4. X a partner in the firm XYZ Co. wants to open a Bank account in the firm’s name. It will require
signatures of:
a. All partners
b. Any one of the partner
c. Managing partner only
d. Sleeping partner not required
5. Public limited companies should have minimum shareholders, before Opening Bank account.
a. 11
b. 7
c. 5
d. 15
6. If the beneficiary is government then the Expiry of guarantee is governed by the ‘law of
limitation’ ranging from 3 years to:
a. 15 years
b. 30 years
c. 20 years
d. 10 years
7. Charge created on LIC Policy is:
a. Lien
b. Hypothecation
c. Pledge
d. Assignment
8. The device that combines the parallel input data into single serial output data is known as:
a. Switcher
b. Multiplexer
c. Encoder
d. Front end processor
9. In market skimming pricing strategy:
a. Initially price is lower and then it is increased
b. Initial price is high and is maintained high
c. Initial price is low and is maintained low
d. Initially price is higher and then it is reduced
10. The marketing personnel need information ………… intervals.
a. At yearly
b. At quarterly
c. At monthly
d. On a continuous basis and regular
Part Two:

1. Explain ‘Cryptography’ and the need of keys. Convince.
   2. Define the term ‘obscenity’ used in E-commerce.
   3. What do you understand by Real time accessement?
   4. What ‘Marketing mix’ conveys in modern marketing theory? Explain in short.
   5. Write a note on ‘Labeling’ in product development.

 

1. Discuss the mechanism of forfeiting and the role played by banks in forfeiting transactions.
   2. How does forfeiting differ from factoring?
2. Discuss the mechanism of forfeiting and the role played by banks in forfeiting transactions.
   2. How does forfeiting differ from factoring?
3. Government securities are referred to as ‘gift-edged securities’, as they are absolutely secured.
   RBI, being the banker to the Government, issues different types of paper on behalf of the latter, to
   cater various requirements. Discuss the various types of Government securities that are issued by
   the RBI.
4. A sound regularly framework in regulating capital markets is expected to provide transparency,
   maintain market integrity, fairness and ensure investor protection. However, lack of adequate
   regulations can lead to manipulations which endanger the integrity of the market and damage the
   confidence of investors and market participants in India?

 

 

Marketing Research

Multiple Choices:
1. Process involving segmentation target market selection and positioning is called
a. Marketing Strategy
b. Marketing plan
c. Marketing Intelligence
d. None of the above
2. 4 Ps of Marketing is
a. Product, Pricing, Procurement, Place
b. Place, Pricing, Plan, Product
c. Product, Pricing, Promotion, Place
d. None of the above
3. Type of Marketing research scale in which variable can be used to compute the commonly used
statistical measures like average etc is
a. Ordinal scale
b. Ratio scale
c. Internal scale
d. Nominal scale
4. Technique of Market research, which include the word associations and a respondent is asked to
think of a word which comes to mind when he thinks of a brand is
a. Qualitative Technique
b. Retail Audit
c. T. V. Audience measurements
d. None of the above
5. The Error which occurs due to the selection of some units and non-selection of other units into
the sample is
a. Non-sampling error
b. Sampling error
c. Total error
d. None of the above
6. Data Nominal and Ordinal scale data are
a. Metric data
b. Non-metric data
c. Clustered data
d. None of the above
7. In the algebraic formula, the symbol for correlation is
a. c
b. r
c. a
d. None of the above
8. Graph useful for making extrapolations beyond observed data points is
a. Scatter graph
b. Histograph
c. Pistograph
d. Line graph
9. Ho symbolises for
a. Null hypothesis
b. ANOVA series
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of the above
10. Target population in sampling process is
a. Population which is to be sampled
b. Population which is distributed
c. Population which is isolated
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. What are the major methods of doing primary research?
   2. What is missing data?
   3. What do you understand by Survey?
   4. Define Data mining?
2. Was the problem identification and formulation systematically carried out? Discuss and put
   forward your viewpoints for improvement in this regard.
   2. Whether the objectives were decided and listed in an appropriate manner? Whether hypothesis
   were to be formulated? What can be the hypothesis in this case?
3. If a sample of 100 of each category were requested, what sampling technique would you
   recommend be used? Why?
   2. What types of errors, if any, would likely be present because of the sampling process being used?1. What is Right to Privacy? Why is it relevant to Marketing Research.
   2. What do you understand by cluster analysis and how they are useful in Market Segmentation?

 

Knowledge Management

Multiple Choices:
1. UCC stands for
a. Universal Commercial Code
b. Uniform Commercial Code
c. Uniq Commercial Code
d. United Commercial Code
2. E-business connects critical business systems and constituencies directly via
a. Internet
b. Extranet
c. Intranet
d. All of the above
3. Unusable rule are also called as
a. User rule
b. Conflicting rule
c. Subsumed rule
d. None of the above
4. Fact in knowledge codification refers to
a. Value of an object or a slot
b. Codification scheme
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. Filling of slots
5. An individual with skills & solutions that work some of the time but not all of the time is
a. Scribe
b. Validity
c. Novice
d. None of the above
6. CBR is
a. Case based reasoning
b. Case based reliability
c. Case based repository
d. None of the above
7. An unskilled employee trying to learn or gain some understanding of the captures knowledge is a
a. Pupil user
b. Tutor user
c. People user
d. None of the above
8. A rule of thumb based on years of experience is called
a. Procedural rule
b. Tacit knowledge
c. Heuristic
d. None of the above
9. Episodic knowledge is
a. Is knowledge based on the fundamentals structure functions & behaviour of objects
b. Is knowledge based on experimental information or episodes
c. Is knowledge based on the unrelated facts
d. None of the above
10. A directory that points to people, documents and repositories is
a. Knowledge map
b. Knowledge codification
c. Rapid prototyping
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Write short note on “KM Life Cycle”?
   2. Write short note on “The Knowing Doing Gap”?
   3. What is “The Malpractice Factor”?
   4. What is knowledge creation?
2. Which factors contributed to motivate the troops to go ahead for such a difficult task as
   recovering a damaged vehicle from such a difficult and treacherous terrain and getting it
   repaired in such a short time?
   2. Which incidents indicate the importance of good interpersonal relationships with juniors,
   peers and superiors and what is the importance of good interpersonal relationships?
3. The DM application used by Carrier was one that was predictive in nature. Could a
   descriptive model also be used? How would you use it, and what outputs would you except?
   Would they be of any use to Carrier?
4. What other data-driven promotions could Carrier come up with using other data mining
   techniques?
5. What manufacturing-driven applications can Carrier implement using data mining?
6. What finance-driven applications can Carrier implement using data mining?`1. Explain in detail “Knowledge Management Systems Life Cycle” and its various approaches?
   2. What do you mean by “Knowledge Codification” and its importance?

 

 

Six Sigma Black Belt

 

Multiple Choices:
1. Calculate the estimated variance of the population from which the following values have been
randomly selected: 2.8 2.7 2.6 2.9 2.8 2.8 2.8.
a. 095
b. 009
c. 088
d. 008
2. The mean, median and mode of a distribution have the same value. What can be said about the
distribution?
a. It is exponential
b. It is normal
c. It is uniform
d. None of the above
3. Approximately what percent of the data values are smaller than the mean?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. None of above
4. A normal probability plot is used to:
a. Determine whether the distribution is normal
b. Plot Z value
c. Determine process capability
d. It percent out of specification
5. Nominal Group technique is used to:
a. Help a group reach consensus
b. Generate a group on new ides
c. Provide a consistent stable group leadership
d. Provide a name for the group
6. An example of a project metric would be:
a. The decrease in defect occurrence
b. The decrease in product cost
c. The decrease in cycle time
d. All the above
7. A correct statement about the relationship between the terms parameter and statistic is:
a. A population statistic is more accurate than a parameter
b. A sample parameter is used to estimate a statistic
c. A sample statistic is used to estimate a population parameter
d. Standard deviation calculation requires both statistics and parameters
8. A and B are events. P(A) = 0.80 and P(B) = 0.90:
a. Events A and B are disjoint or mutually exclusive
b. Events A and B are not disjoint or mutually exclusive
c. P (A and B) = 0
d. P(A and B) = 1.7
9. In a certain sampling situation, a=0, b=0.08. the power of the sampling plan this case is:
a. 0
b. 0.08
c. 1.00
d. 0.92
10. A newspaper article describes a high positive correlation between obesity and orange juice
consumption among six-year-old children’s. Parents who restrict the use of orange juice for their
children have:
a. Made a type I error
b. Made a type II error
c. Misunderstood margin of error
d. Confused correlation with causation
11. In an experimental design context, replications refer to:
a. Duplicating experimental result at another location
b. Repeating a test with the same factor levels
c. Obtaining the same or similar result from different factors
d. Repeating an experiment but using at least one different factor level
12. Find the upper control limit for a range chart if n=4 and the average range is 2.282.
a. 2.282
b. 4.564
c. 5.208
d. 3.423
13. An x-bar control chart been established with control limits of 3.245 and 3.257, n=5. An engineer
collects the following sample and plots the average on the control chart: 3.257, 3.256, 3.258, 3.259
a. The process is out of control
b. The process is not out of control
c. The engineer misused the control chart
d. The control limits are incorrect
14. TEIZ is an acronym which refers to:
a. A set of problem solving tools
b. An organization of quality professionals
c. An experiment using transitional results
d. A Russian general responsible for creative thinking
15. A robust design is one which;
a. Has high reliability
b. Has low maintenance frequency
c. Is simple to manufacture’
d. Is resistant to varying environmental condition
16. A frequent cause of system sub optimization is:
a. Optimizing individual process
b. Failing to draw a system flow chart
c. Using data with outliers
d. Failing to consider the normal distribution
17. The x2 distribution is:
a. Symmetric
b. Left skewed
c. Right skewed
d. Normal
18. An advantage of using standard deviation rather than range for measuring dispersion of a large
sample is that:
a. Standard deviation has a simpler formula
b. Calculators have a standard deviation key but not a range Key
c. Standard deviation uses information from each measurement
d. Range calculation are not normally distributed
19. The team development stage characterized by expression of individual opinions and ideas often
without regard for team objectives is known as:
a. Performing
b. Norming
c. Conflicting
d. Storming
20. SMED is an acronym for activity that:
a. Involve housekeeping in the work area
b. Makes mistake of a certain type impossible
c. Emphasizes the pull of the customer
d. Reduces set up the time
21. A principle advantage of fractional factorial experimental designs is:
a. Reduced cost
b. Improved accuracy
c. Increased confounding
d. Higher confidence level
22. Dr. W Edwards Deming:
a. Lectured in Japan after World War II
b. Was an author of several books in the US
c. Is considered an expert in the quality field
d. All of the above
Part Two:
23. What percent of population falls below the lower specification limits?
a. 9.18%
b. 22.66%
c. 6.68%
d. 1.83%
24. Find the mean, median and mode of the following data set: 9, 11, 12, 14, 18, 18, 18, 20, and 23:
a. 15.5, 18, 18
b. 15, 14, 18
c. 15, 12, 18
d. 15.5, 16, 18

Use for problems 25-27:
A B Res.
25. Calculate the main effect of factor A:
a. 20
b. 25
c. 30
d. None of the above
26. Calculate the interaction effect:
a. 20
b. 25
c. 40
d. None of the above
27. If it is desirable to maximize the response R, the following levels should be used:
a. A+ and B+
b. A+ and Bc.
A- and B+
d. None of the above
28. This experimental design is:
a. Full factorial
b. Half factorial
c. Quarter factorial
d. None of the above
29. The number of factors, levels and replications:
a. 3, 3, 3
b. 3, 2, 2
c. 3, 2, 3
d. None of the above
30. An indication of the experimental error is available because the design has:
a. Multiple replications
b. Multiple levels
c. Multiple factors
d. None of the above
31. The average number of defects is 21.6. Find the upper control limit for the C-chart.
a. 26.4
b. 24.6
c. 26.2
d. None of the above

1. Briefly define Affinity Diagram with an example.
2. By using imaginary figures draw a Run Chart.3. Consider the following data & develop a normal probability graph paper & normal probability
   plot:
   7.9, 9.7, 10.6, 12.7, 12.8, 18.1, 21.2, 33.0, 43.5, 51.1, 81.4, 93.1
   4. A painting process produces coatings with a thickness of 0.0005 & a standard deviation of
   0.00002. What should the tolerance limits be for this process? Briefly explain Tolerance design?
   5. What is Pugh matrix? State the steps which are used in Pugh matrix.1. Define & describe the purpose of root cause analysis? Recognize the issues involved in
   identifying a root cause analysis and list various tools for resolving chronic problem?
3. Describe the purpose & elements of FMEA including risk priority number (RPN), and evaluate
   FMEA results for processes, products, & services. Distinguish between design FMEA (DFMEA)
   & process FMEA (PFMEA) and interpret results from each.

 

Management of a Sales Force

Multiple Choices:
1. ____________ is the stage in which the salesperson must discover, clarify and understand the
buyer’s needs.
a. Customer Research
b. Approach
c. Need Assessment
d. Planning
2. This outcome equates to how much information was absorbed and usually involves in giving the
trainee some type of test.
a. Reactions
b. Leaving
c. Behavior
d. Results
3. A salesperson’s ______________ is calculated by dividing the number of orders received by the
number of calls made (O/C).
a. Batting Average
b. Call Rate
c. Size of Orders
d. Direct Selling Expense
4. Such costs are incurred in connection with a single unit of sales operations.
a. Direct Costs
b. Indirect Costs
c. Overhead Costs
d. Fixed Costs
5. These are the activities that people must perform in orders to carry out the strategy.
a. Objectives
b. Strategies
c. Tactics
d. Goals
6. The highest executives in sales management is most often called:
a. Vice President of Sales
b. Branch Manager
c. Team Leader
d. District Sales Manager
7. A ____________ is someone with knowledge, experience, rank, or power that provides personal
counseling & career guidance for younger employees.
a. Mentor
b. Leader
c. Supervisor
d. Peer
8. The most widely used method of expense control in which the company reimburses sales
representatives for all legitimate business & travel costs they incur while on company business is
known as:
a. Clarity
b. Payment Plans
c. Limited Payment Plans
d. Unlimited Payment Plans
9. It is a direct monetary reward paid for performing certain duties over a period of time.
a. Salary
b. Incentives
c. Bonus
d. Pension
10. This is a performance goal assigned to a marketing unit for a specific period of time.
a. Salary Plus Bonus
b. Salary plus Commission
c. Salary Plus Commission & Bonus
d. Sales Quota
Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘Strategic Account Management’.
   2. Why there is a need of a detailed data in sales?
   3. Briefly explain the nature & benefits of Territories.
   4. What is Market Specialization?
2. What should Clyde Brion do to remedy the imbalanced sales performance of Louise Shannon and
   Henry Sadowski?
3. What type of training program should Mickie Parsons recommend to Keat Markley? What’s your
   reasoning for your recommendation?1. ‘Sales Forecasting is a very difficult task’ Comment on the statement and also suggest some
   guidelines for the manager that can enhance the accuracy of the states forecast.
4. Certain Leadership & Supervisory problems are commonly encountered when managing sales
   people. State those problems which are encountered in leadership.
5. What is Training Assessment? What are the Training Program objectives?

 

 

International Trade

Multiple Choices:
1. _________is beneficial between two nations that have strong markets in two different sectors.
a. Economic Growth
b. International Trade
c. Trade Integration
d. Trade Diversion
2. What is the full form of UNCTAD?
a. United Nation Conference on Trade and Development
b. Union Nations Committee of Trade and Development
c. Union Nations Conference on Trade and Development
d. None of the above
3. ______is fixed through negotiation between the importing country and the exporting country.
a. Tariff Quota
b. Bilateral Quota
c. Mixing Quota
d. Unilateral Quota
4. Under which Act Reserve Code Number is required?
a. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
b. Custom Act
c. Export Import Control Act
d. Foreign Trade Act
5. Which policy of the government will have a direct bearing on the exchange rate of the country?
a. Fiscal Policy
b. Instrument of Trade Policy
c. Monetary Policy
d. Both ‘a’ & ‘c’
6. Which scheme helps the exporters in procuring imported raw materials?
a. IES
b. C.C.S.
c. IRS
d. None of the above
7. Which of the following factor affecting the Exchange rate?
a. Purchasing power Parity
b. Exchange Control
c. Balance of Payments
d. All of the above
8. The system of permitting the currencies to move within a band is called___________.
a. Snake in the tunnel
b. Turtle Device
c. UNCTAD
d. None of the above
9. Periodic, as often as daily devaluations of pre-announced magnitude means________.
a. Managed Float Regime
b. The crawling Peg Regime
c. Single currency Peg
d. Composite currency Peg
10. The Export Policy of Government of India can be divided into_______ distinct phases.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

 

Part Two:

1. Write a brief note on “INTERNATIONAL MONETARY FUND”.
   2. Write the components of the Uruguay Round Agreement.
   3. Differentiate between Export Expansion and Import Substitution.
   4. Explain the Term:-
   a. Bill of Landing
   b. Marine Insurance Policy
2. Discuss the problem that comforts the Tea Industry in the International sphere.
   2. How you asses would the Tea producing states has recommended a package of fiscal reliefs?

 

1. What are the social costs of benefits to Martin’s Textiles of shifting production to Mexica?
   2. What seems to be the most ethical action?1. Describe the current issues affecting the Exchange Rate of India.
   2. Explain briefly “New Trade Theory”.

 

Insurance Management

Multiple choices:
1. India’s first insurance company was established in:
a. 1818
b. 1817
c. 1718
d. 1950
2. The word ‘Ombudsman’ in Insurance means:
a. Appointment of an official to sell the goods.
b. Appointment of an official to investigate the complaints.
c. Appointment of an official to inspect the quality of goods.
d. Appointment of an official to supervise the work force.
3. Insurance is a:
a. Contract
b. document
c. Agreement
d. Both (a) & (b)
4. ‘Asha deep’ is an Insurance:
a. Related to dreaded disease or death
b. Related to theft
c. Related to fire
d. Related to crops
5. ‘Actuary’ is:
a. A book that contains death data
b. A book that contains statics of production
c. A person expert in statics
d. A person expert in agent ship
6. ‘Snobbish’ customers are:
a. Self loving or egoist customer
b. Those who lack confidence
c. Those who take quick and immediate decision
d. Logical customers who ask a lot of questions
7. What stands for ‘I’ in AIDAS related with the knowledge of selling process?
a. Ideal
b. Idol
c. Income
d. Interest
8. Endowment Policy is:
a. Sum of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
b. Difference of Term Assurance and Pure Endowment
c. Sum of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
d. Difference of Endowment Assurance and Pure Endowment
9. In case of Suicide in India:
a. It is not a crime
b. It is a crime
c. It has no relation with the Insurance Policy
d. None of the above can be said
10. USP stands for:
a. Unique Sales Promotion
b. Unique Sales Process
c. Unique Selling Proposition
d. None of the above
Part Two:

1. Elaborate the functionality of ‘Married Women’s Property Act’ of India.
   2. What are the necessary documents that have to be submitted for getting a License for agent
   ship in Insurance Business?
   3. Mention any two Insurance Policies for Handicapped.
   4. What is ‘Charter Policy Parity’?
2. What are the basic factors required as you feel for further improvement in Pricing?
3. According to some industry watches, the big players like Reliance the Tata, and the Birlas contribute to almost 30% of the total premium collected by GIC and its four subsidiaries. And to the extent, GIC and its subsidiaries could see their business shrink. Comment.
4. What according to you, ABCL should have used to claim its best insurance refunds?
   1. How does Money Back Policy differ from Endowment Assurance? Which one is a better
   option and why?
5. How important is the Consumer Protection Act an in today’s world of consumerism?

 

 

 

Aviation Maintenance Management

Multiple Choices:
1. A maintenance check performed approximately every month is known asa.
“C” check
b. “A” check
c. Visual check
d. None of these
2. JAA stands for ______..
3. Establish the rules and procedure for auditing maintenance & engineering facilities for adherence
to safety policy is the responsibility of-:
a. Supervisor
b. Safety manager
c. Employee
d. Company
4. Several visual inspection tasks performed in a specific area of the aircraft isa.
Zonal inspection
b. Non-destructive inspection
c. destructive inspection
d. General visual inspection
5. The probability that an item will perform a required function under specified condition without
failure is known asa.
Reliability
b. Reliability programme
c. Redundancy programme
d. None of these
6. FAA stands for ______.
7. Which of the following is the type of documentation?
a. Regulatory documentation
b. Airline generated documentation
c. Manufacturer’s documentation
d. All of the above
8. Which of the following is the element of Reliability programme?
a. Data collection
b. Setting and adjusting alert level
c. Both a & b
d. None of these.
9. Hanger maintenance & line maintenance comes undera.
Technical maintenance
b. Aircraft maintenance
c. Shop maintenance
d. Material maintenance
10. What is the full form of TPPM:
a. Technical policies and procedure maintenance
b. Technical policies and procedure manual
c. Technical policies and procedure module
d. Technical policies and procedure material
Part Two:

1. List the steps to selecting a computer system for airline maintenance.
   2. What are the types of reliability in aviation industry?
   3. Write short note on ‘Maintenance overhaul shops’,
   4. What is technical publication and list the function of technical publication?

 

1. What are the major plans for implementation to meet challenges of increasing air traffic and
   advancement in technology?
   2. Which types of restrictions were present in the development of tourism in the beginning of
   liberalization?
   3. What is the current status of available total airports in India?
   4. Which airports had recently been declared as international airport and also state the name of
   airports that had been identified for expansion.
2. What are the big problems faced by Indian airports, give suitable examples of these problem?
   2. What suggestions were given by the Roy Paul Committee to overcome these problems? How
   these can be implemented?1. Define line maintenance; and also explain the maintenance control center responsibilities?
   2. Explain goals and objectives of maintenance in aviation”.

 

Portfolio Management

Multiple Choices:
1. _________ is the market for issue of new securities.
a. Secondary Market
b. Consumer Market
c. Primary Market
d. Stock Market
2. Inflation is measured in terms of either wholesale price or_______.
a. Face Value
b. Retail Prices
c. MRP Value
d. Tax Value
3. _______ is basically a channel through which the savings of investors are made available to
corporations for investment.
a. Consumer Market
b. Stock Market
c. Retail Market
d. Whole sale Market
4. The share premium reserve is the amount paid by the ______ in excess of the par value of the
shares.
a. Shareholders
b. Stakeholders
c. Tax payers
d. Employees
5. _______ measures the return on sales and assets of the firm.
a. Liquidity Ratios
b. Turnover Ratios
c. Common Stock Ratios
d. Profitability Ratios
6. In which of the following chart, the closing price for each period is plotted as a point?
a. Line Chart
b. Bar Chart
c. Point and Figure Chart
d. R- Chart
7. Capital gains or losses arise when the investors sells his securities at a price____.
a. Similar from the Cost
b. Different from the Cost
c. Different from the Profit
d. Similar from the Loss.
8. A steep rise in price, followed by wide uniform fluctuations around an average price lead to
formulation of a ______.
a. Channel
b. Triangle
c. Flag
d. Wedge
9. CML stands for______.
a. Capital Market Life
b. Cost Market Line
c. Capital Market Line
d. Capital Measurement Line.
10. The security return on any day is defined as:-
a. Today’s Return = Today’s Price + Yesterday’s Price
Yesterday’s Price
b. Today’s Return = Today’s Cost―yesterday’s Cost
Yesterday’s Price
c. Today’s Return = Today’s Price + Today’s Cost
Yesterday’s Price
d. Today’s Return = Today’s Price ― yesterday’s Price
Yesterday’s Price

Part Two:

1. Discuss the characteristics of Stock Exchange in India.
   2. Describe the Dow Theory.
   3. Write a short note on Capital Market Line.
   4. Mr. X has put Rs. 9000 in a five – year fixed deposit account with a bank. If the bank pays
   interest at the rate of 15% per annum how much money would Mr. X receive on maturity of the
   deposit?
   5. Mr. Robert bought 90 shares of ICA Fertilizers Ltd. at Rs. 59 each on 1/1/2008. On 1/6/2008, the
   company issued bonus shares in the ratio of 1:2. On 1/1/2010 Robert sold 35 of the bonus shares
   for Rs. 78. What is the capital gain made by him ignoring indexation?

 

Principles and Practice of Management

Multiple Choices:
1. A plan is a trap laid to capture the ________.
a. Future
b. Past
c. Policy
d. Procedure
2. It is the function of employing suitable person for the enterprise
a. Organizing
b. Staffing
c. Directing
d. Controlling
3. ___________ means “ group of activities & employees into departments”
a. Orientation
b. Standardization
c. Process
d. Departmentation
4. This theory states that authority is the power that is accepted by others
a. Acceptance theory
b. Competence theory
c. Formal authority theory
d. Informal authority theory
5. It means dispersal of decision-making power to the lower levels of the organization
a. Decentralization
b. Centralization
c. Dispersion
d. Delegation
6. This chart is the basic document of the organizational structure
a. Functional chart
b. Posts chart
c. Master chart
d. Departmental chart
7. Communication which flow from the superiors to subordinates with the help of scalar
chain is known as
a. Informal communication
b. Downward communication
c. Upward communication
d. Oral communication
8. Needs for belongingness, friendship, love, affection, attention & social acceptance are
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Ego needs
d. Social needs
9. A management function which ensures “jobs to be filled with the right people, with the
right knowledge, skill & attitude”
a. Staffing defined
b. Job analysis
c. Manpower planning
d. Recruitment
10. It is a process that enables a person to sort out issues and reach to a decisions affecting
their life
a. Selection
b. Raining
c. Reward
d. Counseling
Part Two:

1. Differentiate between ‘Administration’ and ‘Management’.
   2. What were the common drawbacks in classical and Neo classical theories of management?
   3. Write a short note on “Line Organization.”
   4. Write a short note on ‘Acceptance theory’.
2. Critically analyze Mr. Vincent’s reasoning.
   2. If you were the professor and you knew what was going through Vincent’s mind, what would you
   say to Vincent?
3. Diagnose the problem and enumerate the reasons for the failure of D’Cuhna?
   2. What could D’Cuhna have done to avoid the situation in which he found himself?1. What is Training? Explain the different methods of training?
   2. Explain Decision-Making process of an organization?

 

 

Aviation Management

 

Objective Type

 

1. Which of the following is comes under „Air safety topic?

1. Lightning
2. Ice & snow

 

1. Fire

 

1. All of the above

 

1. JATO stands for _______

 

1. Beam movement, location of beam related to airport and loser stability comes under which of the following of analyzing the hazard?

 

1. Situational factor

 

1. Operational factor
2. Laser/bright factor

 

1. Pilot/aircraft factor

 

1. Which of the following-is not the aviation standard?

 

1. ARINC 429

 

1. ARIN 424

 

1. ARINC 653
2. ARINC 444.

 

1. The total weight of the passengers,: their luggage, and cargo is known as:

 

1. Payload

 

1. Ramp weight
2. Brake release weight

 

1. Landing weight

 

1. Which of the following are not the primary areas of concern?

 

1. Eye damage
2. Temporary flash blindness

 

1. Glare & disruption

 

1. none of these

 

1. STOL stands for_______

 

1. A landing by an aircraft made under factor outside the pilot‟s control such as the failure of engine, system component or weather, is known as__________

 

1. Hard landing
2. Forced landing

 

1. Water landing
2. Belly landing

 

1. De-crab is the technique of __________

1. Crosswind landing

 

1. Belly landing
2. Deadstick landing
3. Emergency landing

 

10. RATO stands for___________

 

Part Two:

 

1. Discus the areas of concern in „Aviation

 

2. Describe classifications of „Indian Aviation Sector

 

3. Define sources from which aircraft noise originates.

 

4. Write short note on “Global Air Traffic Management”.

 

1. Identify the challenges faced by the Aus Airlines in a run to survive.

 

2. What type of strategy helps in increasing the revenues of the Aviation Industry?

 

 

1. What strategy should Air India follow to satisfy its „Price- sensitive‟ customers without losing money? Comment.

 

2. Suggest some features that Air India could adopt to differentiate itself from its competitors.

 

1. Define landing, and also explain the types of landing?

 

2. Explain aviation industry in India, and list the challenges faced by aviation industry?

 

 

 

Business Logistics

 

Objective Type

 

1. It deals with the movement of finished goods from the last point of production to the point of

consumption.

1. Marketing Channel Management
2. Logistics Management
3. Boundaries
4. Relationships
5. Which conflict is one of the major bottleneck in the development & maintenance of partnering

channel relationship

1. Channel conflict
2. Management conflict
3. Logistics conflict
4. Distribution conflict
5. The phase of externally integrated business function era (1990s onwards) is recognized as the

era of

1. Logistics Management
2. Human Resource Management
3. Financial Management
4. Supply Chain Management
5. ___________ may be conducted from time-to-time or at least once in a year to know about

change in the expectation levels & actual performance

1. Customer Service Monitoring cell
2. Formal Customer Satisfaction Survey
3. Customer Conference
4. Customer Feedback System
5. The firm’s incomplete or inaccurate knowledge of customer’s service expectations is known as
6. Market Information Gap
7. Service Standards Gap
8. Service Performance Gap
9. Internal Communication Gap
10. This gap exist between the present level of customer service offered and the corporate vision

about customer service

1. Gap 1
2. Gap 2
3. Gap 3
4. Gap 4
5. This stock refers to window display of an inventory in order to stimulate demand and act as a

silent salesman

1. Decoupling stock
2. Psychic stock
3. Pipeline stock
4. None
5. This stock is also known as cycle or lot size stock
6. Working stock
7. Safety stock
8. Anticipation stock
9. None
10. In this system manufacturer is given the responsibility for monitoring & controlling inventory

levels at the retail store level

1. Quick Response
2. Continuous Replenishment
3. Vendor-managed Inventory
4. Customer Relationship
5. This mode of transport is a very significant one but with a very restricted scope. It is used

primarily for the shipment of liquid & gas

1. Airways
2. Railways
3. Pipelines
4. Seaways

 

Part Two:

 

1. What is Containerization and also mention the main features of Containerization.
2. What is Third Party Logistics?
3. Differentiate between Public & Private Warehouse.
4. What is Logistics Information System?

 

1. Based on information for the current years, is Kansas City the best location for a warehouse? If

not, what are the coordinates for a better location>? What cost improvement can be expected

from the new location?

 

2. If by year 5 increases are expected of 25 percent in warehouse outbound transport rates and 15

percent in warehouse inbound rates, would your decision change about the warehouse

location?

 

1. How should the chief warehouse manager of PCL approach this problem?
2. Develop a warehousing operational strategy to overcome the problem and fulfill the

redefined objectives of the firm.

 

1. Information technology had the major effects on all areas of business. Explain the effective

use of Information Technology in Distribution Management.

 

2. Explain what Partnering Channel Relationship is and also state the reasons for developing

Partnering Channel Relationship.

 

 

Construction Technology

Multiple Choices:

1. Excavation carried out for construction of individual foundation and trenches is________
2. Sloped excavation
3. Bulk excavation
4. Confined excavation
5. Excavation in rocks
6. Which of the following is not the temporary exclusion of controlling ground water?
7. Sump pumping
8. Cofferdams
9. caissons
10. Well point system
11. Strength, water-tightness, abrasion resistance are the properties of_______
12. Plastic concrete
13. Hardened concrete
14. Both a & b
15. None of these
16. The welding which is not suited for fabrication work known as_________
17. Fusion welding
18. Friction welding
19. Flame welding
20. Metal arc welding
21. The most common heat sources used in industrial welding works is_______
22. Electric welding
23. Resistance heating at an interface
24. Flame welding
25. All of the above
26. Silicone-based paint may be applied to porous surface to prevent water penetrating the wall known

as__________

1. Fungicides paint
2. Water-repellent paint
3. Waterproofing paint
4. Heat-resisting paint
5. Which one of the following provides color to painting films?
6. Binder
7. Pigments
8. solvent
9. Additive
10. __________masonry composed of rectangular unit , usually larger in size than bricks and properly

bonded having sawed, dressed, or squared beds- laid in mortar :

1. Rubble masonry
2. Ashlars masonry
3. Block-in-course masonry
4. Grouted masonry
5. RCC stands for ___________
6. WMM stands for ___________

Part Two:

1. What are the causes of accident at construction sites?
2. List the document required for actual project implementation.
3. What are the activities involved in plastering?
4. List the guidelines for storage of civil engineering construction material.

 

1. The cost-effective construction technologies would emerge as the most acceptable case of

sustainable technologies in India. Comment

2. Explain what lessons are required to be learned from International experiences and its own past

experiences in construction project.

1. Explain the construction of the „Euro Tunnel‟.
2. State the benefits of the construction of the „Euro Tunnel‟.
3. Define “Glazing”, Explain different kind of glasses used for glazing purpose?
4. What is meant by mechanical handling? List the important safety guidelines for mechanical

handling.

 

 

E Commerce

Multiple Choices:

1. Which of the following comes under Global Information Distribution Networks?
2. Fibre optic long distance networks
3. Satellits
4. Both (a) & (b)
5. None
6. ___________is a software program loaded on a PC which allows to access or read information

stored on the internet.

1. Server
2. Browser
3. URL
4. None
5. URL stands for____________
6. HTTP stands for____________
7. HTML stands for ____________
8. It can be defined as convergence of branding information dissemination and sales transaction all in

one place.

1. Internet advertising
2. Internet marketing
3. None
4. All of the above
5. It is an enterprise to provide an interface ramp to the internet.
6. Internet protocol
7. Internet service provider
8. Internet
9. None
10. ___________is an electronic payment system, which can transfer money between its accounts.
11. Paypal
12. Cybercash
13. Digicash
14. None
15. It is defined as a communication protocol as well as packet data service.
16. Cell relay
17. Frame relay
18. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
19. None
20. „WWW‟ stands for_____________

Part Two:

1. Define „Mobile Computing‟.
2. Distinguish between HTTP & URL.
3. Describe the role of consumer in e-commerce.
4. Explain the „Application Layer‟ of OSI model.
5. Critically evaluate the Human Resources Policies of “Titus Infotech”.
6. What other strategies would you suggest to reduce the attrition rate at the lower and middle levels?
7. What were the factors of KIT philosophy that helped the company in being successful?
8. While were the leader is dying what could be the possible criteria for selection of a new leader in

the algorithm?

1. What is computer based technology? What are different types of networks for global distribution

networks?

2. What do you mean by internet protocol? Differentiate between search engine and internet service

provider.

 

 

Energy Management

Part One:

1) The audit that focused on evaluating the energy consumption pattern is a

1. Preliminary Audit c. Detailed Audit
2. Sound Energy Audit d. Efficiency Audit

2) Energy Crops are also known as _________________

3) When plant matter is heated but not burnt to break into solid, liquid and gas is which type of

convention

1. Chemical Convention c. Biochemical Convention
2. Thermo chemical Convention d. Residual Convention

4) An example of a simple passive space heating technology is the ________________

5) To make solar design effective which of the following is not followed

1. A building should have large areas of glazing facing the sun.
2. Certain features should be adopted for equal distribution of heat throughout the building.
3. A building should be sufficient to allow heat storage.
4. A building should have proper landscaping to allow direct sun to the building.

6) It is the most common type of solar panel for full solar power systems

1. Unframed Rigid Panels c. Flexible Panels
2. Solar Roofing d. Framed Rigid Panels

7) Low Peak Coincidence Factor is which of the following barrier for Solar Power Development

1. Market Related Barrier c. Economical & Technological Barrier
2. Institutional Barrier d. Ecological Barrier

8) LEED is a _________________________________

9) ________________ is a semi – autonomous body within the OECD

10) SRP stands for ______________________

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘Energy Consumption’?
2. Differentiate between Space Heating and Space Cooling?
3. Write a short note on ‘Crop Drying’?
4. What is a ‘Solar Thermal Program’?

Q1. Write a note on ‘Piecemeal Ratemaking?

Q2. What are the advantages of the Acquisition of Entergy Corp’s by Mississippi Public Service

Commission?

Q1. Write a note on ‘Electricity Generation in India’?

Q2. What are the various substitutes adopted by government to prevent Environmental Pollution?

1. Write a note on the components of Energy sector?
2. What are the recent trends of Clean Energy?
3. What is Biomass? State the different kinds of Biomass?

Entrepreneurship management

Multiple Choices:

1. These entrepreneurs are very much sceptical in their approach in adopting or innovating new

technology in their enterprise.

1. Adoptive or imitative entrepreneurs
2. Fabian entrepreneurs
3. Both (a) & (b)
4. None
5. These entrepreneurs are conservative or orthodox in outlook
6. Innovative entrepreneurs.
7. Drone entrepreneurs
8. Imitative entrepreneurs
9. None
10. Entrepreneurs primarily involve themselves in Research & Development activities.
11. Active Partners
12. Solo Operators
13. Inventors
14. None
15. SWOT stands for_____________
16. Which of the following comes under negotiable instruments?
17. Promissory Note
18. Bills of Exchange
19. Cheque
20. All of the above
21. Industrial Dispute Act passed in____________
22. 1948
23. 1947
24. 1920
25. 1950
26. KVIB stands for____________
27. Khadi and Village Industries Board
28. Khadi and Village Industrial Bank
29. Khadi and Village Insurence Bank
30. None
31. NABARD stands for____________
32. IFCI stands for____________
33. IDBI is a subsidiary of
34. State bank of India
35. Reserve bank of India
36. PNB
37. None

 

Part Two:

1. Discuss in brief the importance of cottage and village industries in india.
2. Write a short note on UTI
3. Write a short note on Cottage Industries.
4. What do you mean by Venture Capital?
5. How could Mahesh and Raja have avoided the problems that led to the end of their partnership?
6. Why is this situation a good example of the difficulty in maintaining partnerships between friends?
7. Is there a list of do‟s and don‟ts regarding employment of family members in a family business?
8. Amit has not got down to documenting a family employment policy yet. Help him frame one
9. Explain the meaning and objectives of Entrepreneurship Development Programmes (EDPs) also

discuss the role of government in organizing EDPs.

2. What are the economic factors affecting the development of entrepreneurship? Explain the social

factors which govern the development of entrepreneurship.

 

 

Event Management

Multiple Choices:

1. Which one of the following is the second element of the promotional strategy?
2. Image
3. Branding
4. Advertising
5. Publicity
6. Most event budgets include a ________ for unexpected expenses.
7. Management Fees
8. Contingencies
9. Break Even Point
10. Cash Flow Analysis
11. This statement is a list of an organization‟s revenue, expenditure, and the net profit (or net loss)

for a specific period.

1. P&L Statement
2. Balance
3. Control System
4. None
5. This risk includes disputes over contracts between the event organizer & the client and/ or

between the event organizer & a subcontractor.

1. Financial Risk
2. Legal Risk
3. Safety & Security
4. Technology-Related Risks
5. It is an important risk control process, and it is essential that every member of the event team is

familiar with this process.

1. Incident Reporting
2. Emergency Response Plans
3. Standards for Risk Management
4. None
5. A _________ chart is generally used in the early planning days and in the lead-up to an event.
6. Gantt chart
7. Organization chart
8. Pie- chart
9. Z-chart
10. It is the set of traditional practices that have long been accepted & used when dealing with &

meeting with others.

1. Rules
2. Regulation
3. Protocols
4. Norms
5. This incorporates all projected images, such as replays of sporting highlights on large screens or

scoreboards.

1. Sound
2. Vision
3. Layout
4. Decor
5. This is that period of group development during which members grow used to one another and

tentatively formulate goals & behaviors that are acceptable.

1. Forming
2. Storming
3. Norming
4. Performing
5. It is about getting things organized, getting things (and people) in the right place & tearing

everything down.

1. Time Management
2. Logistics
3. Policies
4. Procedures

 

Part Two:

1. What do you understand by the term „Incident Reporting‟?
2. Define the concept of Crowd Management‟.
3. Who is an Event Manager & what are the Tasks of the Event Manager?
4. What are the developing Recognition strategies?
5. What were the three complications?
6. How could these problems have been avoided?
7. List the types of events affected by weather.
8. What are the some general suggestions for avoiding weather problems?
9. What are some of the safety risks associated with this event?
10. Who is responsible for the safety of the venue and the audience?
11. How could the risks be reduced?
12. What sorts of contingency plans could be developed?
13. The role of public Relations is to manage the organization and the event‟s image in the mind of

the audience & the public. Justify the statement.

2. Establish the major aims & objectives of the event.
3. State the major consideration for selecting an event venue.

 

Event Marketing

Multiple Choices:

1. The type of event involve a test of physical strength, mental ability & talent or a combination of

these is called___________

1. Competitive events
2. Artistic expression
3. Cultural celebration
4. Exhibition events
5. Who is responsible for organizing the event?
6. Organizer
7. Invitees
8. Sponsors
9. Delegates
10. The interaction that takes place between clients and the target audience during the actual event

known as____________

1. Indirect interaction
2. Direct interaction
3. Both a & b
4. None of the above
5. Which of the following is not comes under the 5 C‟s of events ?
6. Culture
7. Canvassing
8. Conceptualization
9. Customization
10. Strategic alternatives arising from competitive analysis are___________
11. Rebuttal strategy
12. Sustenance strategy
13. Maintenance strategy
14. Both a & b
15. Any venue over which neither the client nor the professional event organizer have any ownership

rights is called___________

1. In-house venue
2. External venue
3. Both a & b
4. None of the above
5. A large identifiable groups of customers with in a market is termed as___________
6. Target marketing
7. Ambush marketing
8. Positioning
9. Segmentation
10. It is a part of revenue generation method during the event management.
11. Merchandising
12. Event Revenue
13. Event Budgeting
14. None of These
15. ____________ provides a forecast on the event about the variable cost & fixed cost of the event.
16. Budget planning
17. Event Budgeting
18. Event Management
19. Event Costs
20. EMIS stands for____________

 

Part Two:

1. What are the 5C‟S of event?
2. Explain the concept of “Target Marketing”?
3. Discuss the key elements of events?
4. Write short note on Pre-event, During-event and post-event activities of event management?
5. Develop detailed operational plans for the end of the race, using estimates of finish times and crowd-flow patterns for participants and spectators.
6. Discuss the occupational safety and health issues of the staff concerned.
7. What are the responsibilities of the management in this case?
8. “Event Management” as an effective marketing tool if executed right. Explain?
9. Define “Event” and discuss the advantages offered by event?

 

Fashion and the Consumer

Multiple Choices:

1. The component in which consumers must buy and wear a style to make it a fashion
2. Style
3. Acceptance
4. Change
5. Taste
6. The people who have too much money to spend and also becomes slaves to designer brands are
7. Fashion Victims
8. Fashion Innovators
9. Fashion Motivators
10. Fashion Followers
11. This style is usually less expensive than designer apparel
12. Contemporary Styling
13. Moderate Styling
14. Traditional Styling
15. Classic Styling
16. Polyester is an example of
17. Synthetic Fibers
18. Regenerated Cellulose Fibers
19. Man – Made Fibers
20. Natural fibers
21. This method is used to dye loose fabrics before yarn processing
22. Piece Dyeing
23. Cross Dyeing
24. Yarn Dyeing
25. Stock Dyeing
26. In this technique, a separate roller engraving is used for each color in the pattern.
27. Wet Printing
28. Digital Printing
29. Dry Printing
30. Engraved Printing
31. It is an Italian Fabric Fair that is held in March and October every year in Italy
32. Ideabiella
33. Eurotuch
34. Premiere Vision
35. Interstoff Asia
36. This lace is made in a Giant Web formed by linking chains of yarn
37. Barmen Lace
38. Raschel Knitted Lace
39. Leaver Lace
40. Venice Lace
41. It is a handbag in which both fabrics and leathers may be stitched by machine but, the closures

must still be done by hand

1. Designer and Better Handbags
2. Luxury Handbags
3. Moderate and Inexpensive Handbags
4. Portable Handbags
5. A jewellery which is more trendy and utilizes metals, that imitate gold and silver is
6. Fine Jewellery
7. Bridge Jewellery
8. Costume Jewellery
9. Fashion Jewellery

 

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ’Traditional Marketing chain’?
2. Differentiate between Collection Reports and Trend Reports?
3. Define ‘Trickle Down Theory’?
4. State the functions of Jobbers and Brokers?
5. What are ‘Hook – and – loop Fasteners?

Q 1. List the contribution of various Fashioners to the Fashion Industry?

Q 1. On the basis of the above Caselet describe the success of the Benetton’s Supply Chain Management in today’s scenario?

1. What are the motives for Consumer Buying? Discuss the fashion categories.
2. How would you elaborate the Fashion Accessories?
3. Explain the fashion service and resource in detail?

 

 

 

Fashion Retailing

Multiple Choices:

1. Which of the following is NOT an example of On – Site Classifications?
2. Small Multiunit Specialty Stores
3. Departmental Store Groups
4. Single – Unit Specialty Stores
5. Home – Shopping Organizations
6. Price, care, serviceability and safety are categorized under:
7. Rational Motives
8. Patronage Motives
9. Emotional Motives
10. Safety Motives
11. A research which is the quickest method and also requires an immediate response_______
12. Intercept Surveys
13. Telephone Questionnaires
14. Mail Questionnaires
15. On – Line Questionnaires
16. The center that utilizes high – volume, high – profile outlets to draw customers:
17. Power Center
18. Off – Price Center
19. Outlet center
20. Mixed – Use Center
21. Stores with little frontage but prefer window space to feature their merchandise build______
22. Windowless Store Fronts
23. Parallel – to – Sidewalk Windows
24. Arcade fronts
25. Open Windows
26. Which of the following is NOT included in the trends of Retail Environment Design and

Fixturing?

1. Split Departments
2. Minimalist Interior Design
3. In – Store Designer Salons
4. Transformation of Historical Building
5. The training in which the trainer can provide the necessary information and allow the trainee as

much time as necessary to comprehend the machine is_______

1. Vestibule Training
2. On – the – job Training
3. Online Training
4. Role Plays
5. _____________ is the most effective anti shoplifting tools
6. Video Surveillance System
7. Electromagnetic System
8. Tag – and – alarm System
9. Magnifying Mirrors
10. Improper Billing while usually on an occasional occurrence is a__________
11. Vendor Theft
12. Internet Theft
13. In – Transit theft
14. Internal theft
15. Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of the successful salesperson?
16. Appropriate Appearance
17. Complete Knowledge
18. Company Loyalty
19. Objectives Achievement

 

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on ‘Spin – Off’ stores?
2. What are the benefits of a Catalogue Shopping?
3. What are ‘Strip Centers’?
4. Explain the Trends in Retail Research.
5. What are the Fashion Department Classifications?

Q 1. How might Amada quickly assess the market and satisfy her needs?

Q2. If the freelancer cannot accommodate her, should\ she persue the effort alone?

Q1. What would you suggest that the company do before hiring another buyer and at the same time be able to cover the other domestic wholesale markets?

1. What is a Planning Strategy to get a Successful Career?
2. How would you explain the Consumer Assessment Theories.
3. Discuss the Fashion Retailing Organization Chart on the basis of Off-site and On-site

Classifications.

 

Financial Management

Multiple choices:

1. Capital turnover ratio is calculated as
2. a) Sales *Capital employed
3. b) Sales / Capital employed
4. c) Sales /Total Assets
5. d) Total assets / Owners fund
6. In ABC analysis C class consist of ________.
7. a) a very large number of items which are less important
8. b) a very less number of items which are important
9. c) quaintly if items which take place after a long time
10. d) that quantity which is fixed in such a way that the total variable cost of managing the

inventory can be minimized

3. The real owners of the company are
4. a) Equity shareholders
5. b) Dividend holders
6. c) Preference shareholders
7. d) Stakeholders
8. The Proprietary concern is owned by
9. a) Three persons
10. b) Only one person
11. c) any one but s persons must
12. d) None of the above
13. Assets and liabilities in the Balance Sheet are shown at ________ prices
14. a) Latest
15. b) Current
16. c) Nominal
17. d) Historical
18. Financing consists of the raising, providing, managing of all the money, capital or funds of any kind

to be used in connection with the business’ is defined by

1. a) Ronald Burns
2. b) Orichad d. maningous
3. c) Bonneville and Dewey
4. d) Kenneth Midgley
5. Shareholders of a joint stock company appoint their representative in the form of ________ to carry

on the day-to-day affairs of the company

1. a) Directors
2. b) Stakeholders
3. c) Partners
4. d) owner
5. The cost which remains constant irrespective of changes in the sales revenue is termed as
6. a) Fixed cost
7. b) Variable cost
8. c) Runtime cost
9. d) Normal cost
10. The comparison of the ratios of one organisation with that of the other organisation is termed as

________ comparison

1. a) Inter-firm
2. b) out-side firm
3. c) Other firm
4. d) All the above
5. A systematic record of the events of the business leading to a presentation of a complete financial

picture is known as

1. a) Financial statement
2. b) Balance Sheet
3. c) Trading account
4. d) Accounting
5. Retained earnings is a source of ________ finance
6. a) Internal
7. b) External
8. c) Quick
9. d) Liquid

 

Part Two:

1. What is Annuity kind of cash flow?
2. What do understand by ‘Portfolio risk ?
3. What do you understand by yield to maturity (YTM)?
4. Elaborate ‘Central limit theorem’.
5. What is the Difference Between NPV and IRR?
6. Evaluate the strategies used by the management in the changed scenario.
7. Which strategies the company adopt for the future?
8. Evaluate the performance of the company financially, using financial ratios and figures.
9. Analyze the case using SWOT analysis.
10. Evaluate the company’s ability to sustain its performance in the present scenario.
11. Suggest the possible costing techniques which can help V.K. Gupta its decision-making (Illustrate

using examples).

3. Conduct a financial analysis of the company of the company and comment its financial

performance?

4. Suggest the various funding patterns that may be adopted by the company in light of the

company’s capital structure.

1. Explain the norms suggested by Tondon Committee for providing bank credit? How

did the recommendations of Chore Committee bring modifications?

2. A population is made up of groups that have wide variations within the groups and less

variations from group to group. Which is the appropriate type of sampling method?

3. Over capitalization and undercapitalization are both unhealthy signs for a firm

“Discuss”? Can they be remedied?

 

Managerial Economics

 

1) Economists have classified input as

1. Timeless
2. landless
3. labourless
4. all the above

2) ∑Pi=………where Pi

is the probability of certain task.

1. Not defined
2. 1
3. 0
4. It will depend on the number of Pi

values we are taking for summation.

3) Slope at x=2 for the given curve y=3×3

+2x be

1. 26
2. 38
3. 36
4. 18

4) For a vertical demand curve the elasticity will be

1. 0
2. 1
3. Between 0 and 1
4. ∞

5) The difference between price and average variable cost is defined as

1. Loss contribution
2. Profit contribution
3. Expectations
4. Market contribution

6) For an industry with ‘n’ firms the total equilibrium o/p for a Cournot oligopoly with Q0 as o/p

from perfect competitive market, is given by

1. Q0(n+1)/n
2. Q0n/(n+1)
3. (n+1)n/Q0
4. (n+1)/(nQ0)

7) Game theory was designed

1. To create situation where individual and organization have conflicting objectives for

competitive growth.

1. To create situation where organization and organization have conflicting objectives
2. To evaluate the condition of the market
3. To evaluate situations where individual and organization have conflicting objectives.

8) The firms may be able to escape from ‘Prisoner’s Dilemma’ if the action is

1. Repetitive
2. Non repetitive
3. Sequential
4. No dependence on the type of action

9) Which is not the Property of Indifference curve

1. Convex to the origin
2. Have positive slope
3. Indicate lower level of satisfaction
4. Do not intersect nor are they tangent to one another

10) Standard deviation is a measure of

1. Sink of price
2. Rise of price
3. Slope of demand curve
4. Risk

Part Two:

1. Define ‘Arc Elasticity’.
2. Explain the law of ‘Diminishing marginal returns’.
3. What is ‘Prisoner’s Dilemma’, a non cooperative game?
4. What is ‘Third degree Discrimation’?
5. Are the problems faced by the Company periodic in nature, and when would the bad period over

the problems cease to persist?

2. Is there a case for shifting the business focus from the Indian market to export to foreign

countries?

3. Is there a case for restructuring and the business process re-engineering so that certain problems

and its impact are under control?

4. What would you recommend as a mission and goal to the Company?
5. How long can an industry sustain on protection?
6. What is the impact of incidental services like assembly, testing, marketing, etc. on the total cost?
7. Would you agree to the suggestion for a complete changeover to wooden cabinet?
8. Would it be desirable to import the components rather than make them in India?

 

1) Free trade promotes a mutually profitable regional division of labour, greatly enhances the

potential real national product of all nations and makes possible higher standards of living all

over the globe.”Explain and critically examine the statements.

2) What role does a decision tree play in business decision-making? Illustrate the choice

between two investment projects with help of a decision tree assuming hypothetical

conditions about the states of nature, probability distribution, and corresponding pay-offs.

 

Managing Hotel Operations

 

Multiple Choices:

1. Housekeeping is the responsibility of:
2. Hotel manager
3. Reservation manager
4. Rooms manager
5. Executive assistant manager
6. Which of the following is not the method of minimizing the overbooking problem:
7. Increasing restrictive policy
8. Third party guaranty
9. Threat of legislation
10. Advance- deposit reservation
11. Which of the following is the channel of the traditional reservation:
12. The changing role of travel agent
13. In-house reservation
14. Central reservation center
15. All of these
16. The real component of “TQM” is?
17. Bedding
18. Cleanliness
19. Noise ,temperature and darkness
20. All of the above
21. Arrange the following into hotel organizational structure:
22. The room manager
23. The general manager

iii. The hotel manager

1. Manager of guest services.
2. i, ii, iii, iv
3. ii, iv, i, iii
4. ii, iii ,i, iv
5. iv, ii, iii, i
6. Alphabetical list of the day‟s expected arrival, individually and by group is:
7. Cancellation and change report
8. Daily analysis report
9. Arrival report
10. Central reservation report
11. Which is not the component of credit management :
12. Extending credit
13. Credit alert and skippers
14. Minimizing charge backs
15. None of these
16. Reservation contained following information during the procedure are design to improve the

effectiveness of the front office:

1. Arriving and departure dates
2. Number of night
3. Number of person
4. All of the above
5. Bank card is the kind of?
6. Debit card
7. Smart card
8. Credit card
9. None of these
10. Segmentation comes under:
11. New product pattern
12. New market Pattern
13. New product segmentation
14. New management pattern

 

Part Two:

1. Explain the special characteristics of hotel business?
2. Differentiate between the marketing to the individual and marketing to the group?
3. List the Information contained in reservation.
4. Explain the organizational structure of hotel management?
5. What does this mean for the business of our clients?
6. Name one output of a hotel.
7. Why is the layout of facilities important in a hotel?
8. Explain the advantages and disadvantages of hotel technology?
9. Discuss how the room rates impact on guest demand?
10. Explain the traditional hotel industry?

Front Office Operations

Multiple Choices:

1. To create a professional image and to make guest comfortable about the staff members is a factor

of______

1. Personal presentation
2. An attentive manner
3. Social skills
4. Use of guest‟s names

2 A small booklet which has the guest‟s name, room number and room rate is_______

1. Credit card
2. Key card
3. Bedroom book
4. Room status board
5. Clear is a sign of_______
6. Room left
7. Room occupied
8. Room vacant and ready
9. Room vacant but not ready
10. Which of the following is not a part of „Property Management System‟?
11. General ledger
12. Registration
13. Night audit
14. Computer terminal
15. Arrange the following as procedure for payment by credit card:
16. Ask the client to sign the audit roll (retain the card)
17. Obtain the card from the client

iii. Check that the signatures on the card and the voucher agree.

1. Swipe the card through the machine.
2. i, ii, iii, iv
3. ii, iv, i, iii
4. ii, iii ,i, iv
5. iv, ii, iii, i
6. When the interest and desire is converted into booking or enquiry it is a result of:
7. Interest
8. Attention
9. Action
10. Desire
11. Providing an individual „PIN‟ number to the customer by the hotel authority is a feature of:
12. Voice mail
13. Message waiting facility
14. Fax
15. Access to hotel services
16. Cheques help in controlling frauds in the hotels.
17. Crossing cheques
18. Cheque authorization
19. Foreign cheques
20. Blank cheques
21. Which of the following is not included in the task performed mainly at the reception?
22. Filing
23. Duplicating
24. Word processing
25. Reservation
26. Chart is very time consuming to be up-dated and its errors results in lower

occupancy.

1. Density chart
2. Density reservation chart
3. Stop-go chart
4. Conventional chart

 

Part Two:

1. Differentiate between the organizational structure of „Small and Medium sized hotels‟.
2. State the main ways in which fire can be prevented in a hotel.
3. List the main methods of „Non-verbal communication‟.
4. Write a short note on „Inside Availability‟.
5. Do you feel it was necessary for mike to commission a consultant‟s report on the Benson? Why

or why not? How would you have approached the situation?

2. Identify and propose solutions for the supervisory challenges in the kitchen and dining areas of

the „Benson Hotel‟.

1. Identify and describe four short-term operational strategies Ken should implement immediately at the Rainbow Golf Resort.
2. Which form of top-down communication would be most suitable for the Rainbow Golf Resort to

achieve its objectives?

1. Explain how the hotel receptionist can contribute to customer satisfaction?
2. Discuss the methods of payments in a hotel.
3. Discuss about the main principles of “Hotel Billing”.

 

Hospital Administration

Multiple forms:

1. Low growth low market share products are termed as___________
2. Stars
3. Cash cows
4. Dogs
5. None
6. To improve organizational performance „Alfred Sloan‟ introduced „3S term‟ as doctrine of

strategy, structure and?

1. System
2. Solution
3. Share
4. None
5. Overburdening may occur due to too many group members seeking out an individual for

information and assistance, a solution to such problem is_____________

1. Linear organization
2. Circular organization
3. Elliptical organization
4. None
5. NHS stands for_________________
6. ICU in medication stands for Internal cure union.(T/F)
7. There are 4 levels of strategic consensus that have been identified among the managers, one level

in which managers are informed about the strategy but they are not willing to act is

called___________

1. Blind devotion
2. Informed scepticism
3. Weak consensus
4. None
5. OCB stands for Organization citizenship behavior.(T/F)
6. BPR stands business process re enforcement.(T/F)
7. The best way to avoid conflict and there by preserve relationship with in the health care

organization is____________

1. Spiral of silence
2. Web of solution
3. Web of solution
4. None
5. IPE stands for inter disciplinary education.(T/F)

 

Part Two:

1. Discuss the Managerial issues in Disaster Management?
2. What do you understand by the Outpatient Department (OPD)?
3. Write a short note on Quality Assurance in a Hospital?
4. Briefly describe the importance and functions of Housekeeping department in the Hospital?
5. Why according to you Artefacts are essential for the development of an organization‟s culture?
6. Elaborate the cultural beliefs of your company?
7. Why there is a need of change?
8. With reference to your company, what changes you prefer?
9. What do you mean by Emergency Department Planning? How would you explain the managerial

issues in Emergency department?

2. Write a short note on the following terms:

1) Central Sterile Supply Department (CSSD)

2) Total Quality Management in Health Care

3) Medical Audit and its Administration

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Principles of Hospital Administration and Planning

Multiple Choices:

1. A method of collaborative work in which visual display of information on flip charts or other

media to which other group member can use is__________

1. Decision matrices
2. Multivoting
3. Boarding
4. Brainstorming
5. A tool for Data collection which summarise perception of a large sample of people

is___________

1. Surveys
2. Interviews
3. Check sheet
4. Data sheets
5. Members of Inspection control committee_________
6. Microbiologist, O.T. incharge, Medical Superintendent
7. Representative from Nursing Service, CSSD in charge, Representative from major clinical

department

1. Both (a) & (b)
2. None of the above
3. MRD stands for___________
4. Medical Records Department
5. Medicine Records Department
6. Medicine Release Department
7. None of the above
8. Format for appraisal in which rank order is establish of employees based on their relative

merit_________

1. Forced Distribution Technique
2. Graphic Rating Scale
3. Ranking methods
4. Free Written Ratings
5. Analytical technique in Materials Management in which all items in inventory on the basis of

annual usuage time cost is________

1. FSN Analysis
2. ABC Analysis
3. VED Analysis
4. None of the above
5. Planning tool used in Quality Management in which the items are written on individual cards and

displayed on a flip chart__________

1. Relations Diagram
2. Process Decision Program chart
3. Affinity Diagram
4. Activity Network Diagram
5. Method of filing of Medical records in which involves filing of records in exact chronological

order according to unit / serial number___________

1. Middle Digit filing
2. Terminal Digit filing
3. Straight Numeric filing
4. None of the above
5. Type of hospital in which the number of beds is over 300 beds is known as___________
6. Large hospital
7. Medium sized hospital
8. Small hospital
9. None of the above
10. Meeting in hospital whose purpose is to pass on information received from agencies is_________
11. Informative Meeting
12. Consultative Meeting
13. Executive Meeting
14. None of the above

 

Part Two:

1. What are the factors affecting “Retraining” in a hospital?
2. Write a short note on Finance in Hospitals?
3. Describe the Negotiating system for Hospitals rates?
4. Write down the different members of Appointment committee of the hospital?
5. Critically evaluate the factors identified by Ritu for enhancing organizational effectiveness?
6. Describe a performance appraisal system that you will recommend to Ritu for evaluating the

employees?

1. What are the assumptions made by Dr. Systematic for their inventory model?
2. Do you recommend any further suggestion for inventory costs in a hospital?
3. Write in brief about structure and function of Hospital organization?
4. Write down the following terms:

1) Labour Relation System.

2) Organization of Hospital Workers.

 

Indian Power Sector

Multiple Choices:

1. NTPC has placed appropriate emphasis on the quality aspects in
2. Project Management
3. Maintenance specialist
4. Forecasting
5. CRM
6. Out of the following which one is NOT under Maintenance objectives
7. To maximize plant availability & reliability
8. To optimize maintenance cost.
9. To create safety in work, equipment & environment
10. Management of large size power stations.
11. Import of capital equipment would be free from
12. Income Tax
13. Custom duty
14. Sales tax
15. None
16. Which sector is one of the largest users of gas in India
17. A. telecom
18. Thermal power
19. Power
20. Energy
21. ____________ is the largest private sector Vertically Integrated Power Utility in the electricity

distribution field in India.

1. NTPC
2. BTL
3. BTC
4. BSES
5. The government of India has set up a ______________ under the Chairmanship of the Union

Minister of Power with members from the Ministry of Power, Finance, Coal, Environment,

Railway Board, CEA at the level of secretary to the government

1. Crisis Resolution Group (CRG)
2. CEA
3. PTC
4. None
5. LNG stands for ___________________.
6. VCP stands for ___________________.
7. KESC stands for __________________.
8. WAPDA stands for ________________.

 

Part Two:

1. Give the new policy initiatives which have been taken by the government of India in the recent

past.

2. What are the few other issues which confront the developers particularly at the time of

finalizing the Power Purchase Agreement?

3. What is Board Organization Structure of the Power Industry?
4. Write a short note on Tata Electric Company.
5. What recommendations would you offer to BRDC? Why?
6. Do you think by giving market research data in ‘project profiles’, the working of BRDC would show any improvements? Why?
7. Describe how the life of workers get effected by working for a long time in Power Companies
8. What recommendations would you suggest to the worker who wants to give the resignation in

the above case? Why?

1. Explain Revised Mega Power Project Policy and give the important features of this policy.
2. Give the response of major concerns and future Outlook of the Indian Private Power Policy

which was introduced in October 1991.

3. State the Inadequacies & Limitations of the State Electricity Board (SEBs) of Indian Electricity

Industry.

 

 

Power Sector Reforms

 

1. It is the largest electricity company and operate in 13 Countries in total
2. The Spanish Multinationals
3. Endesa
4. Iberdrola
5. Union Fenosa
6. This indicates to what extent a particular reforms is accelerating (or possibility retarding) access

to electricity

1. Electrification levels
2. Electrification rate
3. Electricity consumption
4. None
5. The ___________ tariff order has fixed charges for wheeling power from a 220 KV feeder of a

substation to say 132 KV or 33 KV destination

1. Agriculture tariff
2. ERR
3. APERC
4. OECD
5. This represents the contribution of a consumer category towards the peak demand on the

system

1. Demand
2. Energy consumption
3. Consumer
4. None
5. In Argentina, ___________ agreements covering the whole of the electricity sector were ended

& replaced by separate negotiations with each company

1. Outsourcing
2. Privatization
3. Liberalization
4. Collective Bargaining
5. The per capita consumption of electricity increasing at a compounded Annual Growth Rate is

________

3. 3.04 percent
4. 4.04 percent
5. 5.04 percent
6. 6.04 percent
7. VVNL stands for _____________________.
8. CAGR stands for _____________________.
9. CMNAP stands for ___________________.
10. ERC stands for ______________________.

 

Part Two:

1. What is the impact of Power Sector Reforms on the poor in Orissa?
2. State the objectives of the National Electricity Policy?
3. What are the objectives of the Phase III of Reform?
4. What is Rural Electrification?
5. On the basis of the above case comment on the Recent Scenario of Power Sector Reform.
6. Give the highlights of the concerned report.
7. What organizational structure would you recommend for the marketing and sales operations of

M/s. Watts and Volts Ltd?

2. Who in your opinion is responsible for sales? Justify your opinion, in the light of this case.
3. Several issues would be sorted out in creating a separate organization for supplying power to

agriculture. What are those issues? Explain

2. Describe the process of IRP and give the schematic representation of IRP process.

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aravind.banakar@gmail.com

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Insurance Management

Multiple Choices:

1. HMOs charge employers a monthly fee called:
2. A coverage fee
3. The pro rata plan fee
4. The subrogation payment
5. The capitation payment
6. Which of the following alternatives is not a typical dividend option?
7. Cash
8. A lifetime income annuity
9. Reduction of the next premium
10. Accumulation of the next premium
11. Choose the True statement about industrial life insurance.
12. It is less expensive than ordinary life insurance
13. It is more expensive than ordinary life insurance
14. It is also called discount life insurance
15. It is widely used in estate plans
16. Replacement cost at the time of loss less depreciation is the definition of:
17. Actual cash value
18. Fair market value
19. The maximum covered loss
20. The maximum replacement of loss
21. Assets that are readily available to pay claims are called:
22. Admitted assets
23. Accepted assets
24. Real assets
25. Standard operating assets
26. Stare demises means:
27. All things considered
28. Innocent parties prevail
29. It is impolite to stare
30. To stand by decisions
31. In most states the insurance commission is:
32. Impeached
33. Elected
34. Appointed by the government
35. Appointed by the governor
36. The federal law that promotes a safe working environment for workers is:
37. OSHA
38. CERCLA
39. Equal Opportunities Act
40. Superfund
41. The organization that collects data on insurance applicants is the:
42. CBS
43. MIB
44. CIA
45. FCAS
46. The percent of uninsured Americans in 2001 was about:
47. 14 percent
48. 2 percent
49. 4 percent
50. 10 percent

 

Part Two:

1. What are Moral and Morale hazards?
2. What do you understand by ‘Subsidization’?
3. What are ‘Waiver’ & ‘Estoppel’?
4. Write a short note on ‘Patient’s bill of rights.

 

1. Do you think that Sparkler Mutual should pay for the loss? Explain your reasons.
2. Did the family’s absence affect the chance of loss in this case?
3. What arguments would you make if you were planning the legal defense of Total Power and Light Company?
4. If you were on the jury in this case, would you award a judgment for damages to Jones? Explain your reasons.
5. If you were a large business with $ 10 million of property, would you want your primary insurer to purchase reinsurance? Explain your reasons. Would you prefer to deal with a small primary insurer who reinsured your risk or a large primary unsure who did not purchase reinsurance?
6. Do you think a college education is necessary to perform the following occupations

effectively?

1. Life insurance agent
2. Loss adjuster
3. Property insurance underwriter
4. Actuary

 

Risk Management

Multiple Choices:

1. It represents the owner’s stake in the bank & it serves as a cushion for depositors & creditors to

fall back in case of losses.

1. Capital
2. Reserve & Surplus
3. Deposits
4. Borrowings
5. This involves evaluating whether a bank has sufficient liquidity depends in large measure on

the behavior of cash flows under the different conditions.

1. The maturity ladder
2. Alternative Scenarios
3. Measuring liquidity over the chosen time frame
4. Assumptions used in determining cash flows
5. This is the risk of adverse deviations of the mark-to-market value of the trading portfolio, due

to market movements; during the period required to liquidate the transactions.

1. Market Risk
2. Liquidation Risk
3. Market liquidity Risk
4. Credit & counterparty Risk

4.__________ is buying or selling an asset only for the purpose of making profit from movement

of the asset price over a period of time.

1. Arbitrage
2. Derivatives
3. D-mat account
4. Speculation
5. A combination of spot & forward transactions is called a ___________
6. Advances
7. Foreign bills
8. Swap
9. Loans

Examination Paper: Risk Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 2

6.__________ Money refers to placement of funds beyond overnight for periods not exceeding 14

days.

1. Call money
2. Notice money
3. Term money
4. None
5. A short-term debt market paper issued by corporate, with a maximum maturity of 1 year.
6. Treasury Bills
7. Certificates of deposit
8. Repo
9. Commercial paper
10. It refers to the ability of a business concern to borrow or build up assets, on the basis of a given

capital.

1. Leverages
2. Confirmation
3. DVP
4. Volatility

9.__________ Limits are kept in place to protect the bank from credit risk.

1. Exposure ceiling
2. Stop-loss
3. Organizational controls
4. Limits on trading positions
5. RAROC stands for _____________________.

Part Two:

1. Differentiate between options & Forward contract.
2. Write down the steps which are taken by RBI to encourage the derivative market.
3. What is Basic indicator Approach (BIA)?
4. Write a short note on profitability in Indian Banks.

 

1. Critically analyze the strategies adopted by Dinesh to retain the leading position.
2. What additional steps Dinesh could have taken to improve the profitability?
3. Evaluate the company’s investment decision with specific reference to the Agra plant.
4. Had you been the finance manager, would you accept Ford Motors proposal? Why?
5. Do you think the finance manager needs to be concerned about the low depreciation

provision? Why?

4. What according to you is the source of finance available to Ramakrishna Motors Ltd in

case it is required to finance the Ford proposal for the Agra plant?

1. “When a steel company goes bankrupt, other companies in the same industry benefit

because they have one less competitor. But when a bank goes bankrupt, other banks do

not necessarily benefit.” Explain this statement.

2. “The existence of deposit insurance makes it particularly important for there to be

regulations on the amount of capital banks hold.” Explain this statement.

 

 

ISO: 14001:2004

 

1. The ISO 14001 EMS standard only specifies
2. a) The structure of EMS
3. b) The working of EMS
4. c) The behavior of EMS
5. d) None
6. Which clause addresses the general requirements of an Environment Management System?
7. a) Clause 4.1
8. b) Clause 4.2
9. c) Clause 4.3
10. d) Clause 4.5
11. The ISO 14001 structure, like classic quality management systems, is based on
12. a) Plan – Check – Do – Act cycle
13. b) Check – Plan – Do – Act cycle
14. c) Do – Plan – Check – Act cycle
15. d) Plan – Do – Check – Act cycle
16. An environmental system
17. a) Serves as a tool to improve environmental performance
18. b) Provides a systematic way of managing an organization’s environmental affairs
19. c) Focuses on continual improvement of the system
20. d) All above
21. Clause 4.5 of ISO 14001:2004 – …………………… corresponds to the check stage of the PDCA

cycle.

1. a) Planning
2. b) Checking
3. c) Verifying
4. d) None
5. A process of enhancing the environmental management system to achieve improvement is overall

environmental performance in line with the organization’s environmental policy is called

1. a) Environment
2. b) Continual Improvement
3. c) Prevention of Pollution
4. d) Environmental Aspect
5. Which clause states that, ‘the organization shall define and document the scope of its

environmental management system’?

4. a) Clause 4.5
5. b) Clause 4.3
6. c) Clause 4.1
7. d) Clause 4.2
8. Top managers demonstrate their commitment by articulating the …………………… values.
9. a) Written values
10. b) Environmental values
11. c) Physical values
12. d) Numeric values
13. Regarding ‘Prevention of Pollution’ the ISO 14001 : 2004 definition incorporates the concept of
14. a) End – of – pipe
15. b) End – of process
16. c) Reduce creation of pollutants
17. d) Eliminate waste at source
18. The environment policy is a statement of intension. It must be
19. a) Documented
20. b) Implemented
21. c) Maintained
22. d) All above
23. Planning is covered by
24. a) Clause 4.1
25. b) Clause 4.2
26. c) Clause 4.4
27. d) Clause 4.3
28. Environmental aspects must be identified only for those activities products, and services that fall

within the …………………… .

1. a) Undefined scope
2. b) Defined scope
3. c) Any scope
4. d) Predefined procedure
5. The most typical approach to identification of environmental aspects involves
6. a) Examination of individual process
7. b) Investigate the complete process
8. c) Audition of environmental policy
9. d) None
10. Environmental impacts can be
11. a) Acute
12. b) Chronic
13. c) Both (a) & (b)
14. d) None
15. Which clause of ISO 14001:2004 states that, ‘within the defined scope of its environmental

management system, the environmental policy is available to the public’?

4. a) Clause 4.2
5. b) Clause 4.2.5
6. c) Clause 4.3.1
7. d) Clause 4.5
8. If an organization’s environmental management system is to be effective, it must eliminate
9. a) Beneficial environmental effects
10. b) Wholly environmental effects
11. c) Partially environmental effects
12. d) Adverse environmental effects
13. Environmental Impact states that
14. a) Any change to the process
15. b) Effect of the climate
16. c) Any change to the environment
17. d) Change the overall management system
18. Clause, which focuses on activities intended to improve the environmental management system,

is

4. a) Clause 4.4.4
5. b) Clause 4.5
6. c) Clause 4.6
7. d) Clause 4.3
8. The environmental policy statement contains language that only commits to compliance with
9. a) Legal requirements
10. b) Other requirements
11. c) Both (a) & (b)
12. d) None
13. Who is the responsible for identifying and documenting the legal & other requirements that apply to the unit’s environmental respects & operations?
14. a) ISO 14001 coordinator
15. b) Environmental manager
16. c) DNC staff
17. d) All above
18. The legal & other requirements that may be applicable to a unit’s environmental aspects may

include

1. a) National & International legal requirements
2. b) Local governmental legal requirements
3. c) ISO 14001 : 2004
4. d) All above
5. Clause, which mandates periodic evaluation to see whether an organization is in compliance with

all identified legal requirements, is

4. a) Clause 4.5.6
5. b) Clause 4.5.2
6. c) Clause 4.3.2
7. d) Clause 4.1
8. The framework for setting and receiving environmental objectives & targets is provided by
9. a) Environmental Management System
10. b) Environmental Manager
11. c) ISO 14001 :2004
12. d) Environmental Policy
13. Example of objectives that reflect the policy to conserve “natural resources” are
14. a) Reduce water use
15. b) Reduce energy use
16. c) Both (a) & (b)
17. d) None
18. Environmental targets describe ……………….. will be to achieve stated objectives.
19. a) What
20. b) How much
21. c) Why
22. d) When
23. If there is a technology that could reduce a significant impact by 50%, but the organization

discovers that the purchasing price is equal to its entire operating budget. Then which factor

should conclude by the organization that precludes it from purchasing the technology?

1. a) Financial requirements
2. b) Legal requirements
3. c) Technological options
4. d) Operational requirements
5. In ISO 14001:2004, significant environmental aspects or impacts are the focus of
6. a) 4.2a clause
7. b) 4.3.2 clause
8. c) 4.4.2 clause
9. d) All above
10. An organization must establish objectives & targets related to
11. a) Regulatory compliance
12. b) Continual improvement
13. c) Compliance with other voluntary required
14. d) All above
15. A component, which must be determined by the organization in which specific objectives &

targets are to be achieved, is

1. a) Policy
2. b) System
3. c) Time frame
4. d) Management
5. The single most critical resource, at various levels with an organization is
6. a) Lack of money
7. b) Availability of employees
8. c) Bad goodwill
9. d) Labor
10. Within the context of an environmental management system, authority pertains to
11. a) Influence
12. b) Power
13. c) Both (a) & (b)
14. d) None
15. The environmental policy statement contains language that commits to compliance with legal &

other requirements. This commitment is supported by

4. a) Clause 4.3.1
5. b) Clause 4.3.2
6. c) Clause 4.3.5
7. d) Clause 4.4.1
8. Nonconformity as “non – fulfillment of a requirement” is defined in
9. a) Section 3.17
10. b) Section 3.16
11. c) Section 3.15
12. d) Section 2.17
13. In ISO 14001:2004 clause 4.6 is related to
14. a) Internal audit
15. b) Monitoring & measurement
16. c) Evaluation of compliance
17. d) Management review
18. In any evaluation of worker competence, who may include
19. a) Temporary workers
20. b) Contractors
21. c) Other working on behalf of an organization
22. d) All above
23. Training needs must be identified for workers who are required to hold a
24. a) Worker label
25. b) Award
26. c) License
27. d) Any credential
28. Under which section an interested party is defined as a, “person or group concerned with or

affected by the environmental performance of an organization”?

2. a) Section 2.11
3. b) Section 4.12
4. c) Section 3.13
5. d) Section 1.11
6. ISO Awareness Training is recorded through various means & it is verified by
7. a) EMS Internal audits
8. b) Operational Control
9. c) Control of Records
10. d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
11. Which clause confirmed an environmental management system audit is neither an environmental

performance audit not a regulatory compliance audit?

4. a) Clause 4.5.1
5. b) Clause 4.5.2
6. c) Clause 4.5.3
7. d) Both (a) & (b)
8. Sharing of information and exchange of ideas among all organizational functions and levels, is

referred to as

1. a) Transaction
2. b) Communication
3. c) Deal
4. d) Transmission
5. With regard to its environmental aspects and environmental management system, the organization

shall establish & maintain …………………………… between the various levels & function of

the organization.

1. a) External communication
2. b) Internal communication
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None
5. Clause, which states that responsibility must be defined, documented, & communicated, is
6. a) Clause 4.4.1
7. b) Clause 4.2.3
8. c) Clause 4.1.4
9. d) Clause 4.3.2
10. If an organization provides written information to its all employees, then it is
11. a) Communicating
12. b) Conferencing
13. c) Advertizing
14. d) Distribution of information
15. ISO 14001: 2004 uses the terms ‘levels’ and ‘function’. What does the ‘function’ word mean?
16. a) A group of members
17. b) A program organized at the last of the year
18. c) A group of related actions that contribute to a larger accomplishment
19. d) A position of rank
20. The example of external party for an organization could be
21. a) Regulatory agencies
22. b) Community residents
23. c) Civic associations
24. d) All above
25. The environmental management system documentation shall include
26. a) The environmental policy
27. b) Objectives
28. c) Targets
29. d) All above
30. To establish effective procedure, it is necessary to understand what is meant by the term

communication, which is defined in

4. a) Clause 4.3.4
5. b) Clause 4.4.3
6. c) Clause 4.1.4
7. d) Clause 4.3.2
8. An umbrella document, often in the form of manual, that provides an overview of the EMS &

described how each element of ISO 14001 : 2004 is being achieved

1. a) System description
2. b) Procedure
3. c) Work instructions
4. d) Records
5. Work instructions provide
6. a) Detailed information for group
7. b) Information of EMS
8. c) Relevant data
9. d) Detailed information for individuals
10. A document explains
11. a) What must be done
12. b) Format of the work
13. c) How should it be done
14. d) When it should it be done
15. ISO 14001 :2004 states all documents required by the standard must be controlled which include
16. a) Environmental policy
17. b) Roles, responsibilities & authorities
18. c) Operational control procedures
19. d) All above
20. Documents, those created by others brought into an organization for some purpose, are subject to

somewhat different controls, are

1. a) Internal documents
2. b) External documents
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None
5. Section, which defines a document as “information and its supporting medium,” is
6. a) Section 3.11
7. b) Section 2.10
8. c) Section 3.5
9. d) Section 3.4
10. Documents, which always reflect the current version because there is only on “location” (in

computer) at which documents are available and are increasingly used by organization, are

1. a) Internal documents
2. b) External documents
3. c) Electronic documents
4. d) All above
5. A document, that is current at time of issuance and will be updated as revisions are made, is

called

1. a) Master lists
2. b) Controlled copy
3. c) Uncontrolled copy
4. d) Validation form
5. If the copies of EMS are downloaded, printed, and/or saved electronically, but they are

considered

1. a) Uncontrolled
2. b) Controlled
3. c) Current
4. d) None
5. The approaches selected by an organization to control its operations should reflect
6. a) The nature of the aspect of the interest
7. b) The media affected by its interest
8. c) The purpose of the control
9. d) All above
10. The operations of an organization is affected by its
11. a) Employees
12. b) Suppliers
13. c) Contractors
14. d) All above
15. Creating a new procedure , an organization can use its existing communication procedure to

fulfill the requirements, imposed by

4. a) Clause 4.5
5. b) Clause 4.3.2
6. c) Clause 4.4.3
7. d) Clause 4.1.4
8. When universal waste & recyclable material is collected, stored, it has managed for disposal /

recycle, at

1. a) Dustbin
2. b) Recycling center
3. c) Organization
4. d) Anywhere
5. Evaluation of environmental impacts should consider
6. a) Accidental emission to the air
7. b) Accidental discharges to the water
8. c) Accidental discharges to the land
9. d) All above
10. A database, which includes information used to determine the root cause of the incident &

specifies corrective / preventive actions to prevent recurrence of the incident, is

1. a) Environmental Management System
2. b) Environmental Incident Reporting System
3. c) Integrated Contingency System
4. d) None
5. Clause 4.4.7 is related to
6. a) Emergency preparedness & response
7. b) Monitoring & measuring
8. c) Operational control
9. d) Control of documents
10. Regarding environmental incidents and emergency, all employees are trained to report

environmental incidents & emergency situations to

1. a) The Environmental Manager
2. b) Technical Service Manager
3. c) Contractor
4. d) Load Dispatcher
5. An organization, for every significant environmental impact must decide
6. a) What to measure
7. b) How to measure
8. c) When to measure
9. d) All above
10. Which scales of measurement are used to identify categories of objects or events?
11. a) Nominal scales
12. b) Ordinal scales
13. c) Interval scales
14. d) Ratio scales
15. If adverse environmental impacts is labeled as “high – medium – low” as rated “3 – 2 – 1”, then

which scale would be useful to assign values represents things that are better or worse in

comparison others?

1. a) Nominal scales
2. b) Ordinal scales
3. c) Interval scales
4. d) Ratio scales
5. Whatever type of measure is selected, that must be
6. a) Reliable
7. b) Valid
8. c) Both (a) & (b)
9. d) None
10. Documents that the organization feels are necessary to ensure effective operation & control of

process related to its significant environmental aspects, are required by

4. a) Clause 4.1.1
5. b) Clause 4.2.2
6. c) Clause 4.3.3
7. d) Clause 4.4.4
8. Data, which inform an organization whether procedure are being followed & whether they are

effective in managing environmental aspects & controlling related environmental impacts.

1. a) Data obtained form ICP
2. b) Data obtained from EMS
3. c) Data obtained through the measurement techniques
4. d) Data obtained through the measurement & monitoring techniques
5. For ISO 14001 registration, an organization must provide evidence of
6. a) A procedure for evaluating legal compliance
7. b) Compliance review by management
8. c) Corrective action for any noncompliance
9. d) All above
10. If the organization’s ……………………………… has not identified the noncompliance, the

registrar audit team will ascertain whether the organization had identified & has access to its legal

& other requirements.

1. a) Internal audits
2. b) External audit
3. c) Registration audit
4. d) None
5. Who will first attempt to determine whether the audited organization’s internal audit team

identified the same noncompliance?

1. a) Audit team
2. b) Manager
3. c) Registrar Audit Team
4. d) Auditor
5. If organization has identified the requirement with which its fails to comply, the registrar audit

team will question, that

1. a) Why evaluation of compliance did not reveal this efficiency
2. b) Why evaluation of compliance is not suitable
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None
5. Clause, which says that, ‘the organization shall keep records of the results of the periodic

evaluation, is

4. a) Clause 4.5.2.1
5. b) Clause 4.5.2.2
6. c) Clause 4.4.2
7. d) Clause 4.4.3
8. Who is responsible for the scheduling & completion of quarterly audits of objectives & targets &

periodic audits of selective environmental compliance issues?

1. a) Technical Services Manager
2. b) Satellite point Manager
3. c) EMS Manager
4. d) ISO 14001 Coordinator
5. Preventive action is defined as
6. a) Action to eliminate the causing of a potential nonconformity
7. b) Action to eliminate the cause of a potential conformity
8. c) Both (a) & (b)
9. d) None
10. Identification of nonconformities tends to be considered in conjunction with
11. a) Environmental Management System
12. b) EMS Audits
13. c) List of nonconformities
14. d) None
15. An organization must take action to mitigate environmental harm that already resulted from the
16. a) Conformity
17. b) Mistake
18. c) Nonconformity
19. d) Process
20. When corrective or preventive action is taken, the …………………….. will review the action at

an appropriate time to determine the results of the action.

1. a) Technical Services Manager
2. b) ISO 14001 Coordinator
3. c) Suppliers
4. d) Environmental Manager/ Designee
5. Prevention action defined as “action to eliminate the cause of a potential nonconformity” in

section

3. a) Section 3.17
4. b) Section 3.15
5. c) Section 3.3
6. d) None
7. ……………………. provide information that confirms the occurrence of activities or verifies

performance relative to a fixed or recommended standard.

1. a) Data
2. b) Files
3. c) Records
4. d) Diaries
5. The ISO 14001 :2004 states explicitly that records must be kept
6. a) Compliance, training & awareness
7. b) Monitoring & measurement
8. c) Internal audit
9. d) All above
10. Internal audit is defined in
11. a) Clause 4.3.1
12. b) Clause 4.5.5
13. c) Clause 4.4.1
14. d) Clause 4.4.3
15. Records should be in ink, rather than pencil, to prevent
16. a) Smudging
17. b) Darkness
18. c) Readability
19. The linkage between an activity and an associated record should be clear, this feature of record is

known as

1. a) Identifiable
2. b) Legible
3. c) Traceable
4. d) All above
5. Which section defines an auditor is a “person with the competence to conduct an audit”?
6. a) Section 3.14
7. b) Section 3.17
8. c) Section 3.1
9. d) Section 3.4
10. Any record, electronic or hard copy, identified on the environmental records retention schedule

that demonstrates conformance with EMS & legal & other requirements, is known as

1. a) Environmental record
2. b) Environmental aspect
3. c) Information
4. d) Document
5. The ……………….. is used to determine if it is time to destroy an environmental record.
6. a) EMS List
7. b) Employee’s Detail List
8. c) Records Retention List
9. d) None
10. An environmental management system audit is
11. a) Environmental performance audit
12. b) Regulatory Compliance Audit
13. c) Both (a) & (b)
14. d) None
15. An EMS audit verifies that appropriate procedures are in place & functioning to ensure

conformity with

1. a) ISO 14001 : 2004
2. b) An organization’s document
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None
5. The internal audit procedure must address
6. a) Responsibilities
7. b) Audit Criteria
8. c) Frequency
9. d) All above
10. Smaller organizations may be unable to delicate the resources required for a sufficient no. of

auditors. In such a circumstance, an organization might borrow auditors from

1. a) Corporate headquarters
2. b) Consortia
3. c) Consulting firms
4. d) Sister facilities
5. Information that is verifiable & is based on facts obtained through observation measurement,

testing, or other means, is

1. a) Nonconformance
2. b) Conformance
3. c) Objective evidence
4. d) None
5. Input to management review shall include
6. a) Results of internal audits
7. b) Communication(s) from external interested parties, including complaints
8. c) Status of corrective & preventive actions
9. d) All above
10. Management review should be viewed as
11. a) Strategic
12. b) Potential
13. c) Tactical in Nature
14. d) None
15. Decision – makers, who contribute to the management review process & provide the authority &

resources to address recommended improvements, are

1. a) Managers
2. b) Employees
3. c) Contractors
4. d) Executives
5. The reason given by SMEs for implementing ISO 14001 is
6. a) Customer requirements
7. b) Continuous improvement or environmental performance
8. c) Improved regulatory compliance
9. d) All above
10. The small organization, those with one to five employees, sometimes referred to as
11. a) Medium enterprises
12. b) Micro enterprises
13. c) Mini enterprises
14. d) Super enterprises
15. Continual improvement as a “recurring process of enhancing the environmental management

system in order to achieve improvements in overall environmental performance consistent with

the organization’s environment policy”, is defined by

3. a) Section 3.1
4. b) Section 3.14
5. c) Section 3.17
6. d) Section 3.2

 

 

ISO: 9001: 2008

Multiple Choices

1. A desired result is achieved more efficiently when activities & related resources are managed as a
2. a) Program
3. b) Process
4. c) Aim
5. d) Project
6. An advantage of process approach is
7. a) Internal working
8. b) External management
9. c) Ongoing control
10. d) None
11. A quality management system has confirmed to ISO 9001:2008 is aimed to achieve
12. a) Minimum quality
13. b) Best quality
14. c) Maximum profit
15. d) Customer satisfaction
16. If exclusions are not limited to requirements with clause 7, then which action is taken against

claims of confirmed

1. a) Claims of conformity to this international standard are not acceptable
2. b) Claims of conformity to this international standard are acceptable
3. c) Modify those exclusions
4. d) None
5. Whenever the term “product” is used, it can also mean
6. a) Cost
7. b) Quality
8. c) Profit
9. d) Service
10. A process that the organization needs for its quality management system and which the

organization chooses to have performed by an external party, is

1. a) Outsourced process
2. b) Internal process
3. c) External process
4. d) None
5. To determine how all of the process relate to each other, process must be
6. a) Mapped
7. b) Flowcharted
8. c) Both (a) & (b)
9. d) None
10. The term “quality” can be used with adjective such as
11. a) Poor
12. b) Good
13. c) Excellent
14. d) All above
15. Which clause requires the organization to identify and prepare documents necessary for effective

planning, operation, and control of its processes?

3. a) Clause 3.2
4. b) Clause 1.4
5. c) Clause 4.2.1d
6. d) Clause 2.4e
7. There is no requirement to create a documented procedure for describing the process of creating a quality policy in
8. a) Clause 4.2.3
9. b) Clause 8.5.2
10. c) Clause 5.3
11. d) Clause 7.1
12. The extent of quality management system documentation dependent on the
13. a) Size & type of organization
14. b) Complexity & interaction of the organization’s process
15. c) Competency of the organization’s people
16. d) All above
17. According to clause 3.7.2, the document is defines as
18. a) Information and supporting medium
19. b) Product
20. c) Report
21. d) Data
22. Top management is required to ensure that customer requirements are
23. a) Determined
24. b) Understood
25. c) Met
26. d) All above
27. According to clause 3.3.5, the “customer” term is defined as
28. a) Organization or person that receives product
29. b) A person that sells a product
30. c) Purchaser
31. d) None
32. Clause, which requires that top management establish the quality policy is
33. a) Clause 5.3
34. b) Clause 5.1
35. c) Clause 3.2
36. d) Clause 4.3
37. Once the policy is established the organization must _________________ it.
38. a) Deploy
39. b) Implement
40. c) Recreate
41. d) Verify
42. The quality policy describes overall interactions and direction of an organization related to

quality as formally expressed by top management. This definition is defined by

3. a) Clause 3.2.4
4. b) Clause 3.3.1
5. c) Clause 3.1.1
6. d) Clause 3.2.7
7. Clause, which requires management of change so that the integrity of the quality management

system is maintained when the system is change, is

3. a) Clause 3.2.4
4. b) Clause 5.4.2
5. c) Clause 3.2.1
6. d) Clause 4.5.3
7. According to clause 5.2, who is responsible to ensure that customer requirements are determined

and met with the aim of enhancing customer satisfaction?

1. a) Top management
2. b) Employees of the organization
3. c) Low level manager
4. d) None
5. An activity defined in clause 3.8.7 undertaken to determine the suitability, adequacy &

effectiveness of the subject matter to achieve established objective, is

1. a) Process
2. b) Procedure
3. c) Review
4. d) Requirement
5. Clause, which requires that personnel are competent, is
6. a) Clause 6.2.4
7. b) Clause 6.2.1
8. c) Clause 5.2.3
9. d) Clause 6.5
10. According to clause 3.1.6, competency is defined as
11. a) Demonstrated ability to apply knowledge and skills
12. b) To compare with other organization
13. c) Improvement in quality
14. d) None
15. The records that are created by the activities to ensure competency may need to be enrolled per

clause 4.2.2, which is related to

1. a) Control of documents
2. b) Control of records
3. c) Quality Management System
4. d) Monitoring & Measurement
5. The organization need to identify what classroom training, seminars, on-the-job, or other training is necessary so that
6. a) Top managers involved in Quality Management System is competent
7. b) Low level managers involved in Quality Management System is competent
8. c) Every employee involved in Quality Management System is competent
9. d) All above
10. From the following in which part it is common practice to conduct training evaluation?
11. a) Evaluation of the training immediately upon completion
12. b) Evaluation of the training received several weeks after the training
13. c) Evaluation of the skills developed several months after the training
14. d) All above
15. Which clause defines the infrastructure as system of facilities, equipment & services needed for

the operation of an organization?

3. a) Clause 3.6.1
4. b) Clause 3.3.3
5. c) Clause 3.3.1
6. d) Clause 3.3.2
7. The work environment of an organization can be considered to be a combination of
8. a) Internal & external events
9. b) Human & process
10. c) Customers & consumers
11. d) Human & physical factors
12. Which physical factor can affect the work environment?
13. a) Heat
14. b) Hygiene
15. c) Humidity
16. d) All above
17. From the following which clause provides the essence of the use of the process approach?
18. a) Clause 4.1
19. b) Clause 8.1
20. c) Clause 7.1
21. d) All above
22. According to clause 3.4.2, the product is defined as
23. a) Result of a process
24. b) A service
25. c) Software
26. d) Hardware
27. The planning for realization processes covered in _________________ should define the records

the organization will keep during the process of determining customer requirements.

7. a) Clause 7.5
8. b) Clause 7.1
9. c) Clause 8.3
10. d) Clause 2.8
11. The obligation assumed by the organization includes not only the products defined but also

ancillary items such as

1. a) Conformance to stated delivery dates
2. b) Adherence to referenced external standards
3. c) Compliance with the commercial terms & condition applicable to the order, contract,

quote or tender

1. d) All above
2. According which clause, the organizations have the ability to meet requirements?
3. a) Clause 6.2.2
4. b) Clause 7.2.2
5. c) Clause 8.2.2
6. d) Clause 5.2.2
7. A critical activity generally involves several functions & levels in an organization, is
8. a) Sell the product
9. b) Improve the quality
10. c) Determination of customer requirements
11. d) None
12. The arrangement identified & implemented should be appropriate for the organization in terms of
13. a) Its products
14. b) Its orders
15. c) Its contracts
16. d) All above
17. Clause, which applies to all product type, to all market sectors, and to organization of all sizes, is
18. a) Clause 7.2.1
19. b) Clause 6.5.2
20. c) Clause 3.5.3
21. d) Clause 2.6.2
22. The intent of clause ____________ is to make sure that the organization plans and controls

design and development projects.

6. a) Clause 6.4
7. b) Clause 7.2.1
8. c) Clause 7.3.1
9. d) Clause 5.4.2
10. If the design and development processes are planned and controlled well, then the projects will be completed
11. a) On time
12. b) Within budget
13. c) Both (a) & (b)
14. d) None
15. The output from the design and development process is expected to include an information that

relates to

1. a) Producing
2. b) Creating
3. c) Manufacturing
4. d) Processing
5. According to clause 4.2.2, inputs relating to product requirements shall be determined and records

maintained. These inputs shall include

1. a) Functional and performance requirements
2. b) Applicable statuary & regulatory requirements
3. c) Where applicable, information derived form previous similar designs
4. d) All above
5. Which clause defines the requirements specification for new product & maintains the records?
6. a) Clause 7.3.2
7. b) Clause 8.7.2
8. c) Clause 6.4.1
9. d) Clause 5.4.3
10. Which work should not begin until a document exits in form acceptable to all who have

responsibility for contributing to product specification?

1. a) Designing
2. b) Development
3. c) Production
4. d) Selling
5. Design and development output be provided in a way that can be used for
6. a) Identification
7. b) Justification
8. c) Validation
9. d) Verification
10. Which statement is true?
11. a) Validation is usually performed after successful design & development verification
12. b) Verification is usually performed after successful design & development validation
13. c) Validation & verification both are same
14. d) Validation & verification both are performed simultaneously
15. Which clause requires that the organization shall ensure that purchased product conforms to

specified purchase requirements?

8. a) Clause 8.2.1
9. b) Clause 7.4.1
10. c) Clause 6.5.2
11. d) Clause 4.4.1
12. Clause 7.4.1 requires records of the results of supplier evaluations and subsequent follow-up

actions, with specific reference to

5. a) Clause 5.2
6. b) Clause 4.2.4
7. c) Clause 5.3.1
8. d) Clause 7.2.1
9. Clause, which requires the organization defined a process for verifying that purchased product

conforms to defined requirements, is

7. a) Clause 7.4.3
8. b) Clause 7.4.2
9. c) Clause 7.4.1
10. Clause, which requires to pertain when verification activities are to be performed at the supplier’s

premises, is

7. a) Clause 7.4.3
8. b) Clause 7.4.2
9. c) Clause 7.4.1
10. d) Clause 7.4.5
11. Which clause requires a process to ensure that purchasing documents adequacy state all of the

requirements for the items to be purchased?

7. a) Clause 7.4.1
8. b) Clause 7.4.2
9. c) Clause 7.4.3
10. d) Clause 7.4.4
11. If purchased material has high actual potential impact on either the final product on the

realization processes, then

1. a) No need to control it
2. b) Less control is required
3. c) More robust control is required
4. d) None
5. Determination the nature of the control is the responsibility of
6. a) Suppliers
7. b) Customers
8. c) Employees
9. d) Organization
10. Which clause addresses the processes necessary for an organization to produce and deliver

product & services?

6. a) Clause 6.4.1
7. b) Clause 5.2.3
8. c) Clause 7.5.1
9. d) Clause 7.2.3
10. Documentation requirements for the overall quality management system are stated in
11. a) Clause 4
12. b) Clause 5
13. c) Clause 6
14. d) Clause 7
15. The focus of clause 7.5.1, ‘control of production and service provision’, is the key concept that

processed need to be carried out under

1. a) Uncontrolled conditions
2. b) Controlled conditions
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None
5. If changes are made to process equipment, the product design, the materials used to produce the

product or to other significant factors such as new personnel, then the process often requires

1. a) Reevaluation
2. b) Revalidation
3. c) Reproduction
4. d) Recertification
5. Validation should be carried out at appropriate ________________ to respond to changes in

market requirements, regulations, or standard in addition to assuring the continued acceptable

performance of processes.

1. a) Intervals
2. b) Checkouts
3. c) Positions
4. d) Timings
5. Which one is true?
6. a) Identification and traceability are same
7. b) Identification and traceability are not same
8. c) Identification and traceability are not related
9. d) Identification and traceability are separate bur related issues
10. Identification and traceability is related to
11. a) Clause 7.5.3
12. b) Clause 7.5.2
13. c) Clause 8.2.1
14. d) Clause 7.5.1
15. Clause, which provides the framework for the establishment and maintenance of a measurement

system, is

7. a) Clause 7.1
8. b) Clause 6.5
9. c) Clause 7.6
10. d) Clause 5.6
11. According to clause 8.1 ‘Measurement, Analysis & Improvement’, from the following which is

the responsibility of the organization?

1. a) What it needs to monitor & measure
2. b) Where to monitor & measure
3. c) What analysis should be performed
4. d) All above
5. Which clause monitored the customer satisfaction information?
6. a) Clause 7.2.1
7. b) Clause 8.2.1
8. c) Clause 8.2.5
9. d) Clause 6.2.4
10. Internal audit of the quality management system remains grouped with clauses for monitoring

information relation to __________________.

1. a) Customer requirements
2. b) Customer perceptions
3. c) Customer satisfaction
4. d) All above
5. Clause 8.4, ______________________, of ISO 9001:2008, which could be a source of

information in identifying the key process to monitor.

1. a) Monitoring & measurement
2. b) Control of records
3. c) Analysis of data
4. d) Customer satisfaction
5. When process monitoring or measurements indicate that the desired results are not being

achieved, the process may need ________________ to identify and eliminate root causes.

1. a) Corrective action
2. b) Reproduction
3. c) Modification
4. d) Perceptive action
5. Monitoring & Measurement of a product is related to
6. a) Clause 8.2.4
7. b) Clause 7.2.4
8. c) Clause 6.2.1
9. d) Clause 7.3.2
10. For purchased material, clause ___________, ‘verification of purchased product’, requires the

organization to identify and implement verification activities.

7. a) Clause 7.5.1
8. b) Clause 8.2.3
9. c) Clause 8.2.4
10. d) Clause 7.4.3
11. Which clause requires establishing process to ensure that product that does not confirm to

requirement is identified and controlled to prevent unintended use or delivery?

8. a) Clause 8.2
9. b) Clause 8.3
10. c) Clause 7.5
11. d) Clause 6.4
12. Is services are the product of an organization, clause 8.3 may have ___________ applicability.
13. a) Limited
14. b) Unlimited
15. c) Complete
16. A(n) _______________ shall be established to define the controls & related responsibilities and

authorities for dealing with non conforming product.

1. a) Documented procedure
2. b) Report
3. c) File
4. d) Information
5. When nonconforming product is corrected it shall be subject to _________________ to

demonstrate conformity to the requirements.

1. a) Revalidation
2. b) Re verification
3. c) Review
4. d) Implement
5. The organization should consider documenting a process for addressing situations in which

_____________ is detected after delivery to or use by a customer has occurred.

1. a) Nonconformity product
2. b) Conformity product
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None
5. The analysis of data shall provide information relating to
6. a) Customer satisfaction
7. b) Conformity to product requirements
8. c) Suppliers
9. d) All above
10. The clause, which requires the organization to collect & analyze appropriate data to determine the

suitability & effectiveness of the quality management system, is

8. a) Clause 8.1
9. b) Clause 8.2
10. c) Clause 8.3
11. d) Clause 8.4
12. Clauses, which are linked in the sense that the organization should function on a closed-loop

bases, are

1. a) Clauses 5, 6 and 7
2. b) Clauses 6,7 and 8
3. c) Clauses 5,7 and 8
4. d) Clauses 4,5 and 6
5. The _______________ is a powerful tool for driving continual improvement.
6. a) QMS
7. b) Analysis of Data
8. c) Modify data
9. d) Improvement
10. Collecting of data without developing the data into useful information is a (n) _______________

of organizational resources.

1. a) Product
2. b) Service
3. c) Tool
4. d) Waste
5. The purpose of analysis is to convert data into
6. a) Usable information
7. b) Relevant information
8. c) Product
9. d) None
10. The organization should seriously consider documenting expectation for continual improvement

at least in the area of data related to

1. a) Customer satisfaction
2. b) Conforming to product requirements
3. c) Opportunities for preventive action
4. d) All above
5. The appropriate information on customer satisfaction on and/ or dissatisfaction may depend upon the ______________ of an organization relationship with its customer.
6. a) Nature
7. b) Behavior
8. c) Service
9. d) All above
10. The organization shall continually improve the effectiveness of the QMS through the use of the
11. a) Quality policy
12. b) Quality objectives
13. c) Audit results
14. d) All above
15. The setting of objectives consistent with a quality policy containing a commitment to continual

improvement of the effectiveness of the QMS is required in

5. a) Clause 5.4.1
6. b) Clause 5.4.3
7. c) Clause 5.4.4
8. d) Clause 6.2.1
9. The intent of clause _____________ is to achieve an integrated improvement mentality

throughout the organization.

8. a) Clause 8.5.4
9. b) Clause 8.4.1
10. c) Clause 8.5.1
11. d) Clause 8.3.2
12. ________________ involves the taking action to eliminate the causes of nonconformities.
13. a) Corrective action
14. b) Preventive action
15. c) Improvement
16. d) Analysis of data
17. Clause, which is related to requirements for customer communications states that arrangement

must be made with customer relating to complains, is

8. a) Clause 8.3
9. b) Clause 8.5.2
10. c) Clause 7.2.3
11. d) Clause 6.2.1
12. In preventive action the organization is required to identify how it will eliminate the “causes” of

potential nonconformities in order to prevent their

1. a) Resources
2. b) Occurrence
3. c) Visibility
4. d) None
5. FMECA stands for
6. a) Failure modes, effect, and critical analysis
7. b) Failure modes, eliminate and cancel analysis
8. c) Foreign money exchange and complete association
9. d) None
10. Which clause requires records of preventive action results with specific reference to clause 4.2.4

for control of records generated?

8. a) Clause 8.4.1
9. b) Clause 7.2.4
10. c) Clause 8.5.2
11. d) Clause 8.5.3
12. The success or failure of the Quality Management System implementation depends on
13. a) How the requirements are implemented
14. b) The process used for implementation
15. c) The midset of top managers & other employees
16. d) All above
17. Planning for continual improvement described in ISO 9001:2008,
18. a) Clause 5.4.2
19. b) Clause 8.1
20. c) Both (a) & (b)
21. d) None
22. Active and serious management review of the entire loop required in
23. a) Clause 4.2
24. b) Clause 5.6
25. c) Clause 7.2
26. d) Clause 8.6
27. A desired result is achieved more efficiently when activities and related resources are manage as

a

1. a) Process
2. b) Project
3. c) Individual work
4. d) Plan
5. A process is nothing more than a collection of
6. a) Related activities
7. b) Interrelated activities
8. c) Modules
9. d) Individual task
10. ___________________ provide requirements to the process and feedback how well those

requirements have been met.

1. a) Consumers
2. b) Customers
3. c) Suppliers
4. d) Managers
5. A system is a collection of _________________ with a common set of objectives & outputs.
6. a) Interrelated process
7. b) Interrelated activities
8. c) Hardware
9. d) Software
10. The approach in which audits all of the process, each major process can be ensure compliance

with ISO 9001:2008 called

1. a) Horizontal audit
2. b) Vertical audit
3. c) Both (a) & (b)
4. d) None
5. Vertical audits can be used for ________________ areas that have major parts of the overall

system.

1. a) Process
2. b) Planning
3. c) Functional
4. d) Improvement
5. In which sector ISO 9001 certification is frequently used to increase confidence in the products & services provided by certified organization?
6. a) Private
7. b) Public
8. c) Both (a) & (b)
9. d) None
10. The key objective of the ISO/IEC sector policy is
11. a) Maximize the use of generic QMS international standards
12. b) Support international trade & remove trade barriers
13. c) Support developing countries
14. d) All above
15. Records of audits and their results are described in
16. a) Clause 8.2.2
17. b) Clause 8.2.4
18. c) Clause 7.5
19. d) Clause 8.3.4
20. The basis used for calibration is defined in
21. a) Clause 7.3
22. b) Clause 7.6a
23. c) Clause 7.5.2a
24. d) Clause 7.3.4

 

Journalistic Ethics

Multiple Choices:

1. The correspondence or disquotational theory of truth is a ____________ theory.
2. Formal
3. Informal
4. Positive
5. Negative
6. The use of another person‟s thinking or writing without explicit acknowledgement or its original

source is known as

1. Credibility
2. Originality
3. Plagiarism
4. Source
5. The effort to bridge the fact-value gap or blur the distinction between facts & values, is referred

to as the

1. Naturalistic Fallacy
2. Principia Ethic
3. Pervasive division
4. None
5. According to moral philosophers the relation between facts& values as one
6. Aesthetic Facts
7. Artistic Facts
8. Transcend Facts
9. None
10. Out of the following which falsehood in news reporting are the work of rogue reporters whose

professional misconduct is morally intolerable.

1. Countless Falsehood
2. Deliberate Falsehood
3. Inadvertent Falsehood
4. Erroneous Falsehood

State True/False:

6. The guidance needed for making correct relevance judgment is a common sense.
7. The remote control device on a modern television is a type of a behavioral analyst‟s dream which

is now comes true.

8. Advertisers are journalists and so can be held responsible for adhering to the principles of

journalistic ethics.

9. A totalitarian government is first & foremost a regime that takes control of every aspect of the

news media.

10. It is important for a theoretical ethical philosopher to distinguish between moral & prudential

considerations.

 

Part Two:

1. What are the principles for controlling censorship?
2. What is Moral & Prudential Reasoning?
3. List the Guidelines for appeals to confidentiality?
4. Define the legal and moral rights of Journalistic.

 

1. Would the medical emergency described warrant disclosing the identity of a confidential

informant? Why or why not?

2. What criteria might reasonably be applied in order to decide what kind or what scope of potential

emergency justifies disclosing a confidential informants identity? How can we prevent the

acknowledgement of such possibilities from degenerating into a slippery slope, the outcome of

which is to undermine the use of any and all confidential informants?

1. What were the legal issues involved in this interesting case? How, if at all, do they relate to the

morality of respect for privacy by journalists?

2. Do you agree with the OK! Solicitors‟ position that the second decision in this case deprives

journalists of protection for their prior agreements to exclusive publication rights? What is the

exact legal principle by which the court reached its judgment, as reflected in The Guardian

report? Can it be justified on grounds of professional journalistic ethics? If so, how? If not, why

not?

1. What is the significance for professional journalists ad journalistic ethics of evaluations of the

relative freedom of the press in different societies

2. Define the Privacy in a public world? Explain the constitutional basis for the right to privacy?

Mass Communication

Multiple Choices:

1. __________ Communication deals with public outside the organization.
2. External Communication
3. Internal Communication
4. Diagonal Communication
5. Vertical Communication
6. It concerns the lifestyles and activities of people such as movie attendance, hobbies, and types of

physical exercise

1. Geographic‟s
2. Demographics
3. Psychographics
4. None
5. Technique of sending magazines free to individuals within an industry to increase identification

with an organization

1. Association Magazines
2. Controlled Circulation
3. Conglomerate
4. Association Management
5. The Connection made when a magazine runs a story about a product advertised in the magazine.
6. Package deals
7. Tie-ins
8. Publishers
9. Editorial
10. Writing illustrating and designing publications with a personal computer is known as
11. Desktop Publishing
12. Distributor
13. Wholesalers
14. Retailers
15. A boxlike mechanism used to view short films during the late 1800s
16. Nickeleon
17. Broadcast TV
18. Kinetoscope
19. Computer
20. The technique of joining pieces of film or of digitally manipulating images in a creative process.
21. Editing
22. Oligopoly
23. Processing
24. Writing
25. Marketing strategy common in the 1930s and 1940s that required theaters to book movie before

they were produced.

1. A& B pictures
2. Block booking
3. Blind booking
4. Vertical Integration
5. Department that controls movement of programming through the day, logs what goes on the air,

& supplies information for billing advertisers.

1. Modulators
2. Traffic
3. Demodulator
4. Decoding
5. A favorite television format of the 1950s that consisted of stage plays produced for TV is
6. Blacklist
7. Fellow Travelers
8. Quiz show
9. Anthology

 

Part Two:

1. Differentiate between Broadcast Station and Cable System.
2. Write a short note on Mass Communication?
3. Define the Interaction of supply and demand?
4. Explain the development of Mass advertising?
5. Schorr maintains that he has a journalistic obligation, which is to say responsibility, to disclose

circumstances that could “color” his views on a politician. What does he mean by this? Is he right

to say that that he has a moral responsibility as a Journalist to reveal such facts to his readers?

Why or why not?

2. From what might Schorr‟s sense of journalistic obligation derive? What is its source?

 

1. Are there any circumstances under which it is morally justified to impose censorship? What,

according to Fisk, are the likely effects of censuring the new Iraqi press?

2. When a society is relatively stable and well-established, there are always remedied for libel and

inaccuracies in reportage. A society in crisis, like Iraq during the American occupation after the

Second Gulf War, does not have such mechanisms in place. Do these facts provide the basis for a

reasonable defense of the decision to censure the press?

1. What is the threat of Regulation? Explain the types of media regulation?
2. Define the approach to mass communication research? Also discuss the types of research

methods and the role of theory in research?

 

Knowledge Management

Multiple Choices:

1. UCC stands for:
2. Universal Commercial Code
3. Uniform Commercial Code
4. Unique Commercial Code
5. United Commercial Code
6. E-business connects critical business systems and constituencies directly via:
7. Internet
8. Extranet
9. Intranet
10. All of the above
11. Unusable rule are also called as:
12. User rule
13. Conflicting rule
14. Subsumed rule
15. None of the above
16. Fact in knowledge codification refers to:
17. Value of an object or a slot
18. Codification scheme
19. Both (a) & (b)
20. Filling of slots
21. An individual with skills & solutions that work some of the time but not all of the time is:
22. Scribe
23. Validity
24. Novice
25. None of the above
26. CBR is:
27. Case based reasoning
28. Case based reliability
29. Case based repository
30. None of the above
31. An unskilled employee trying to learn or gain some understanding of the captures knowledge is a:
32. Pupil user
33. Tutor user
34. People user
35. None of the above
36. A rule of thumb based on years of experience is called:
37. Procedural rule
38. Tacit knowledge
39. Heuristic
40. None of the above
41. Episodic knowledge is:
42. The knowledge based on the fundamentals structure functions & behavior of objects
43. The knowledge based on experimental information or episodes
44. The knowledge based on the unrelated facts
45. None of the above
46. A directory that points to people, documents and repositories is:
47. Knowledge map
48. Knowledge codification
49. Rapid prototyping
50. None of the above

 

Part Two:

1. Write short note on “KM Life Cycle”.
2. Write short note on “The Knowing Doing Gap”.
3. What is Nominal Group Techniques (NGT)?
4. What do you mean by Delphi Method?
5. Which factors contributed to motivate the troops to go ahead for such a difficult task as recovering a damaged vehicle from such a difficult and treacherous terrain and getting it repaired in such a short time?
6. Which incidents indicate the importance of good interpersonal relationships with juniors, peers and superiors and what is the importance of good interpersonal relationships?
7. What other data-driven promotions could Carrier come up with using other data mining

techniques?

2. What manufacturing-driven applications can Carrier implement using data mining?
3. Explain the concept of Tacit Knowledge. List the different techniques of capturing Tacit

Knowledge.

2. Explain Global Knowledge Leadership. What are the driving forces behind global expansion

of knowledge management?

Lean Materials Management

Multiple choices:

1. The top management planning process during which the Demand and Supply sides of the

business meet one a month for risk assessment and analysis is called___________.

1. Sales and operation planning (S&OP)
2. Sales, Inventory and operation planning (SIOP)
3. Production, sales and Inventory (PSI) process
4. All of the above
5. Which of the following comes under 5-S?
6. Seri
7. Seiketsu
8. Straighten
9. All of the above
10. ___________is the process of aligning components with process to meet customer need.
11. Lean management
12. Material management
13. Inventory Management
14. None of the above
15. ________refers to the way that the material requirement system generates the signal for

material to move.

1. Planning
2. Demand
3. Execution
4. None of the above
5. BOMs stands for_______
6. SMED stand for_____________
7. Simple manufacturing exchange of Die
8. Single minute execution of die
9. Single manufacturing engineers and design
10. Society for manufacturing engineers and design
11. Which of the following comes under Reliability?
12. Quality
13. Integrity of promises
14. Responsiveness to schedule changes
15. All of the above
16. DMAIC stand for_______
17. Denote, Measurable, Auctions, Improvement, Create
18. Define, Measurement, Analyze, Improve, Control
19. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control
20. None of the above
21. _________ are about accountability in organizations and, thus are everywhere in highperformance

businesses.

1. Planning
2. Communication
3. Management
4. None of the above
5. ___________ is a mapping exercise to track information or decision making through an

organization chart.

1. TVM
2. ERP
3. VOAM
4. JIT

 

Part Two:

1. Write a short note on Vendor Managed Inventory?
2. Differentiate between functional manufacturing and process flow?
3. How would you explain the rules for master production schedule level loading?
4. What do you understand by the term of Inventory Management?
5. How will this impact the areas?
6. How will the department managers plan for this without breaking confidentiality?
7. Explain how Alton Towers kept ahead of the competition in the years from 1982 until

present.

2. Explain the benefits to Alton Towers of having restaurants and souvenir shops dotted

around the site?

1. Describe the control Group method? Explain the effective steps and results of it?
2. Define the customer focused Quality (Six Sigma)? How many steps are involve in DMAIC

process?

3. Explain the following terms?
4. a) Kanban
5. b) kaizen
6. c) Lean Inventory Strategy

 

Tourism Development

Multiple Choices:

1. ___________ are those factors that create a person’s desire to travel.
2. Travel motivation
3. Early influences
4. Tour operator
5. None
6. This is the modern Western style hotels seen in almost all metropolitan & other large cities as

well as principal tourist centres.

1. Resort hotels
2. Commercial hotel
3. International hotels
4. Residential hotels
5. The companies practicing this concept think in terms of the benefits they are selling rather than

the products.

1. Integrated marketing
2. Customer orientation
3. Dual-core marketing job
4. None
5. This segment comprises visits to relatives & friends & visits for the purpose of

education, pilgrimages etc.

1. The common-interest tourist
2. The vacation tourist
3. The business tourist
4. Tourist market
5. The research which includes the collection & analysis of all available data, statistics & published

information on tourist trends and markets.

1. Desk research
2. Field research
3. Sample surveys
4. Motivation research
5. ____________ is a pamphlet bound in the form of a booklet.
6. Special offers
7. Display material
8. Sales letter
9. Brochure
10. This part of NTO will be concerned with all those elements and activities which make up the

tourism product.

1. The administration
2. The production
3. The marketing
4. Financing
5. When people travel outside their normal domicile to certain other areas within the country is

known as

1. Domestic tourism
2. International tourism
3. Foreign tourism
4. None
5. This is the division or categorization of land permitting only certain kinds of use on it.
6. Creation of “honey pots”.
7. Dispersion policy
8. Zoning
9. Encouragement of green policies
10. PATA stands for_____________.

Part Two

1. Write a short note on Travel Agent Association of India (TAAI).
2. What are the different categories of Travel Motivators?
3. Define the Measurement of Tourism?
4. Explain the functioning of WTO.

 

1. What are some tactics and strategies that need to be used to make this a workable situation for

the development and private enterprise?

2. Who might the partners be in this type of situation?
3. How will the message of environmental ethics be promoted?
4. Where will the information distribution centers be established?
5. To whom should the restaurateur go for help in gathering possible solutions to the lopsided

workload situation?

2. What are some possible options for shifting some of the workload from the first cook to the other

two cooks?

1. How should Jordan tourism products be packaged?
2. How does Jordan’s location in the middle of the world events and fighting impact its

tourism products?

3. How will the issue of enhanced tourism be promoted to the population as well as to

potential tourists?

4. How will infrastructure issues be addressed (water, waste, security, transportation) to make a

trip to Jordan achievable?

1. Define Hotel and explain the different types of Hotels.
2. Discuss the Marketing concept? Define the special features of Tourism Marketing and also

explain the Tourist Marketing Mix?

 

Tourism Management

Multiple Choices:

1. Which system replaced Roman rule that resulted in many different autonomous domains.
2. Feudal system
3. Macro polo system
4. Sporadic system
5. None
6. Out of the following which Era is characterized by travel to new & familiar locations, both near

& far

1. The Grand Tour Era
2. The Mobility Era
3. The Modern Era
4. The Traditional Era
5. Knowledge of ___________ geography provides the means to identify & describe natural

features of the earth including landforms, water, vegetation & climate.

1. Physical
2. Human
3. Regional
4. Social
5. Studying tourism from a __________ approach provides a basic understanding of how

organizations manage revenues & expenses.

1. Marketing
2. Finance
3. Management
4. None
5. Out of the following which comes under the fourth need of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
6. Physiological needs
7. Safety needs

Examination Paper of Travel & Tourism Management

IIBM Institute of Business Management 2

1. Belonging needs
2. Esteem needs.
3. Which segmentation has proven especially useful in segmenting the traveling public
4. Geographic segmentation
5. Demographic segmentation
6. Psychographic segmentation
7. Product-related segmentation
8. _____________ travel is considered to be the backbone or “bread & butter” of the tourism

industry

1. Business
2. Incentive
3. Special-interest
4. Personnel
5. ___________ refers to the ability of service personnel to perform the promised service accurately

& consistently

1. Tangible
2. Reliability
3. Responsiveness
4. Assurance
5. This is the most simplest form of distribution, providing travelers with direct access to tourism

supplier

1. One-level distribution channels
2. Two-level distribution channels
3. Three-level distribution channels
4. Four-level distribution channels
5. Out of the following which tour provides buyers with a number of tourism supplier elements plus

the services of a local host

1. Independent tour
2. Foreign independent tour/ domestic independent tour
3. Hosted tour
4. Escorted tour

 

Part Two:

1. List the different types of segmentations of Tourism Market?
2. Define the role of Government in Tourism?
3. Write a short note on Tourism Promotion agencies?
4. Define Tourism & Foreign Exchange Rates?
5. Was broccoli a good choice as a substitution for cauliflower on this menu? Why or why not?
6. How might the handling of this specific food item shortage be improved?
7. What are the pros and cons of ordering frozen vegetables as a backup in case fresh items are not available?
8. What should Jacquey do to determine whether the shortage rate really is unacceptable and, if it is, how could she reduce the shortage rate?
9. To whom should the restaurateur go for help in gathering possible solutions to the lopsided

workload situation?

2. What are some possible options for shifting some of the workload from the first cook to the other

two cooks?

1. Define Tourism and service & Tourism? Explain the challenges and opportunities of Tourism.
2. Discuss Tourism information sources and service? Explain the two-level distribution and three level distribution channel.

 

International Finance

Multiple choices:

1. Maintenance margin money denotes the minimum level to which the margin is allowed to

fall in the sequel of loss, if the balance drops below this, one has to deposit,

1. Initial margin amount
2. Variation margin amount
3. Maintenance margin amount
4. Initial as well as variation margin amount.
5. The two kind of swap in the forward market are
6. Forward swap and reverse swap.
7. Reverse swap and option swap.
8. Forward and option less swap.
9. Forward swap and option swap.
10. International Fisher Effect or generalized version of the Fisher effect is a combination of
11. PPP theory and Fisher’s open proposition.
12. Fisher’s open and closed proposition.
13. PPP theory and Fisher’s closed proposition.
14. None of the above.
15. Exchange rates are quoted as ‘direct’ and ‘indirect’ ,if the direct quote of a country ‘X’

(currency unit ‘a’) with country ‘Y’ (currency unit ‘b’), is “ a 50/ b 20” then the indirect

quote will be

2. b 2.5/ a 1
3. b 0.4/ a 1
4. b 10/ a 1
5. Cannot be calculated.
6. If the investors are risk neutral ie forward prices are equal to the expected spot prices at

delivery then the covariance of marginal rate of substitution and the exchange rate of

contract at delivery is

1. Always unity
2. Zero
3. Infinite
4. Between Zero and unity
5. In cylinder or tunnel option, the correct option is
6. If the spot rate is lower than the lower strike rate then buyer has to pay lower spot rate.
7. If the spot rate is lower than the lower strike rate then buyer has to pay lower strike rate.
8. If the spot rate is higher than the higher strike rate then buyer has to pay lower strike

rate.

1. If the spot rate is higher than the higher strike rate then buyer has to pay higher strike

rate.

7. The concept of parallel loan says
8. Amount of the loan moves out of the county but it serves the purpose of internal loan

also.

1. Amount of the loan moves out of the county but it serves the purpose of cross border

loan.

1. Amount of the loan moves within the county and it serves the purpose of external loan

only.

1. Amount of the loan moves within the county but it serves the purpose of cross border

loan.

8. According to one of the earliest theory proposed by Hymer on the imperfect market
9. Multinational firm is a typical imperfect market.
10. Multinational firm is a perfect market
11. One should not look for control if want the maximum profit
12. None
13. If the NVP(net present value) from parent’s perspective and from the subsidiary’s

perspective are positive and negative respectively then

1. Project cannot be accepted
2. Project shall be accepted
3. Project may be accepted but it is doubtful how far useful for parent unit.
4. Project may be accepted but chance of loss in host country currency will be there.
5. If ‘A’ and ‘B’ are the price elasticity of demand for import and export respectively then

devaluation helps to improve current account balance, only if

1. 2A + B is greater than 1.
2. A – B is equal to 0.
3. A+B is greater than 1.
4. A + B is lesser than 0.

 

Part Two:

1. Write a note on ‘Fixed Parity System’ for exchange rates.
2. What are Direct & Indirect Quotes of exchange rates?
3. What is ‘Forward Market Hedging’?
4. How could ‘Optimization of Portfolio’ be achieved?

 

1. Mention the loss borne by the US exporter in the sequel of appreciation of dollar.
2. What strategy the Indian importer needs to follow to hedge the exchange rate risk?
3. Describe the network of ABN AMRO Bank in India.
4. What role does it play for global cash management?
5. Crawling peg is the compromise between fixed exchange rate and floating exchange rate

discuss.

2. Is international working capital management more complex than the domestic working

capital management?

Security Analysis and Portfolio Management

Multiple choices:

1. Covariance of the returns of security i and market portfolio is 270. Standard deviation of market

portfolio is 15. Calculate β of security i.

1. 1.2
2. 2.4
3. 3.0
4. 3.8
5. 4.2
6. In an economy the level of confidence can be gauged by examining the following factors.
7. The current investment climate
8. The current capacity utilization
9. Overall economic conditions
10. Financial performance of companies
11. All of the above
12. Default free bonds can still have
13. Price change risk
14. Interest rate risk
15. Marketability risk
16. Political risk
17. All of the above
18. The analyst should take into account the following characteristics while evaluating a company for

investment purpose.

1. Permanence
2. Labor conditions
3. Government policies and regulations
4. Past earnings performance and future expectations
5. All of the above
6. B1 and B2 group shares in BSE can be settled through
7. Carry forward settlement
8. Spot delivery
9. Hand delivery
10. Kerb trades
11. None of the above
12. Which among the following factors are considered while conducting five factor ROE analysis?
13. Pre-tax margin
14. Operating margin
15. Asset turnover
16. Total leverage
17. All of the above
18. The ratio of market capitalization to book value can be used as a proxy for
19. ROE
20. ROA
21. EBIT
22. EBDIT
23. None of the above
24. A stop loss order is given when the market is
25. Highly volatile
26. Experiencing a downtrend
27. Experiencing a bull run
28. Inactive
29. None of the above
30. The low exit and high entry barriers can be found in industries which have
31. Low and stable returns
32. Low but risky returns
33. High and stable returns
34. High but risky returns
35. None of the above
36. Which of the following companies deal in commodities?
37. HLL
38. Reliance
39. Wipro
40. Grasim
41. Both (b) and (d) above
42. Which among the following is unique to a security?
43. Risk-free rate
44. Risk premium
45. Rates of expected inflation
46. Nominal interest rates
47. None of the above
48. To prove the independent nature of price changes in stocks, analysts conduct which of the

following tests?

1. Auto-correlation tests
2. Residual analysis
3. Event studies
4. Runs test
5. Both (a) and (d) above
6. A “Connected Person” according to the SEBI Regulations, 1992 is defined as
7. A company under the same management
8. A merchant banker or a share transfer agent or a broker
9. An employee of a public financial institution
10. The company’s banker
11. All of the above
12. The slope of the CAPM line is also referred to as the
13. Systematic risk
14. Market price of the risk
15. Unsystematic risk
16. Both (a) and (b) above
17. None of the above
18. The risk of the whole market as measured by ‘Beta’ is
19. 1
20. 0
21. -1
22. Greater than 1
23. None of the above
24. Securities which are plotted above the SML line are
25. Underpriced
26. Those whose intrinsic value is equal to the market value
27. Overpriced
28. Favorable investments
29. Both (a) and (d) above
30. In India, the secondary market for shares is regulated by
31. RBI
32. Ministry Finance
33. SEBI
34. Company Law Board
35. There is no regulatory authority
36. Banker’s acceptances are traded in
37. Money market
38. Capital market
39. Derivative market
40. Forex market
41. None of the above
42. Which among the following is/are market determined?
43. Havala rate
44. Carry forward margin
45. Badla charges
46. Making up price
47. None of the above
48. High growth rates in earnings and market shares is a characteristic of companies which are in
49. Maturity stage
50. Expansion stage
51. Pioneering stage
52. Declining stage
53. None of the above

 

Part Two:

1. Explain ‘Discretionary Order’, a type of order available to stock traders.
2. What does ‘β’ (Beta) mean in risk measurement?
3. Define ‘Liquidity’.
4. What is ‘Beta Control’?
5. Which company do you think in India confirms to the traditional explanation of why firmsgrow?
6. Which company do you think in India has improved its valuation after focusing on its core competencies.
7. How does the introduction of rolling settlement complement the stock being traded in the demat

format?

2. What are the advantages to the company whose shares are traded in the demat form?
3. Investment in bond assures the investor a fixed return with some element of risk. Elaborate on the various risks involved in bond investment and recommend the techniques to reduce these risks.
4. Explain where in the companies resort to manipulative accounting techniques with respect to the following areas.

 

 

 

 

Pharmaceuticals Industrial Management

Multiple Choices:

1. Which of the following not the principle of co-‘ordination?
2. Principle of early beginning
3. Principle of continuity
4. Principle of time
5. Principle of reciprocity
6. Oral communication includes-.
7. Lecture
8. Poster
9. Union publication
10. Complaint procedure
11. Enthusiasm, co-operation, tact and skillful handling come under-.
12. Intellectual quality
13. Character quality
14. Psychological quality
15. Physical quality
16. Which of the following is the demerit of formal communication?.
17. a) Decay in accuracy
18. b) Time consuming
19. c) It is temporary
20. d) Fairly unsuitable
21. Arrange the following into decision making process
22. Conception
23. Investigation

iii. Perception

1. Selection
2. a) iv,i,iii, ii
3. b) ii,iv iii,i
4. c) iv,i,iii,ii
5. d) iii,i,ii, iv
6. FIFO stands for ______________________.
7. Record of all item of material and good in the store is recorded in which document?
8. a) Store ledger
9. b) Bin card
10. c) Both a & b
11. d) None of these
12. VED stands for ______________________.
13. In the EOQ formula ‘C’ is stand for-
14. a) Annual consumption
15. b) Cost of per unit of material
16. c) Cost per order
17. d) Storage
18. WTO stands for ______________________.

 

Part Two:

1. What is questionnaire? Explain rules or guidelines for designing a good questionnaire?
2. Define drug store management? ‘Discuss the arrangements of drugs in drug store?
3. Name the various steps in the selection of a pharmacist?
4. What are the purposes of training given to a pharmacist?
5. Briefly explain the concept of CRM & SFA systems.
6. State the features of a Good SFA system.
7. Write down some CRM/SFA systems which are available in the market for Pharmaceutical Industry.
8. What are the benefits of CRM system?
9. Explain the working of a Glenmark Pharmaceuticals.
10. State the features of a Glenmark Pharmaceuticals.
11. Define ‘Pharmaceutical marketing? Explain objectives and importance of pharmaceutical

marketing.

2. Define ‘Advertising’? What are the advantages and disadvantages of advertising in

pharmaceutical marketing?

Pharmaceutical Marketing

 

1. What is the full form of ‘IPR’?
2. Intellectual property rights
3. Intellectual patent rights
4. Intellectual process rights
5. International patent rights
6. The environment that poses tremendous opportunities for new products and services to alert

marketer is an _________ environment.

1. Ecological
2. Social
3. Technological
4. Competitive
5. Arrange these market opportunities analysis step by step:
6. Evaluate new opportunities in new segments
7. Build on your strengths

iii. Explore new market opportunities

1. Analyze your existing markets
2. i, ii,iii,iv
3. ii,iv,i,iii
4. iv,ii,iii,i
5. i,iii,iv,ii
6. Marketing virtually the same product with two or more brand names is a strategy of:
7. Family brand strategy
8. Multiple brand strategy
9. Individual brand
10. Private brand
11. The pricing that deals with the judgmental or subjective elements of pricing is a:
12. Cost-based pricing
13. Petition based pricing
14. Market based pricing
15. Demand based pricing
16. Which of the following is not a member of distribution channel?
17. The Physician
18. Manufacturer
19. The consumer
20. The transporter
21. Arrange the communication process in order:
22. Medium
23. Feedback

iii. Sender

1. Receiver
2. Message
3. a) ii,iv,v,i,iii
4. b) iii,v,i,iv,ii
5. c) iv,i,iii,v,ii
6. d) iii,ii,iv,i,v
7. The strategy used to create a demand for a product within a channel of distribution by appealing

directly to the consumer is a:

1. Pull strategy
2. Push strategy
3. Combination strategy
4. Competitive strategy
5. Toward off a competitive threat or to create an entry barrier, some companies from different

power blocks may temporarily form a cartel it is termed as:

1. Franchise power
2. Integration power
3. Niche power
4. Coalition power
5. Which of the following ‘R’ is not a part of good management principle?
6. Resources
7. Recognition
8. Responsibility
9. Reward

Part Two:

 

1. Define the term “Marketing Communication”.
2. Differentiate between ‘Product Item’ and ‘Product Mix’.
3. Differentiate between ‘Cost Based Pricing’ and ‘Demand Based Pricing’.
4. Describe “Boston Matrix”
5. If you were in the position of Swami, what would have been your decision? Justify keeping

qualitative aspects in mind.

2. Discuss the various other factors, which should be considered while making capital investment

decision.

 

1. Was it right for V.D. Agarwal to withdraw half way during negotiations?
2. In view of the information given in the case, suggest the strategies for making IMPLA

Pharmaceuticals a more progressive organization.

1. Explain the terms in the context of the “Pharmaceutical Marketing” :
2. Brand
3. Trademarks
4. Product line
5. Explain the important point that should be considered, while packaging pharmaceutical product?

Also list the various dimensions of pharmaceutical market.

 

International Financial Management

Q.1 What is meant by BOP? How are capital account convertibility and current account convertibility different? What is the current scenario in India?
Q.2 What is arbitrage? Explain with the help of suitable example a two-way and a three way arbitrage.
Q3. You are given the following information:
Spot EUR/USD : 0.7940/0.8007 Spot USD/GBP: 1.8215/1.8240 Three months swap: 25/35
Calculate three month EUR/USD rate.
Q.4 Explain various methods of Capital budgeting of MNCs.
Q.5 a. What are depository receipts?
b. Boeing commercial Airplane Co. manufactures all its planes in United States and prices them in dollars, even the 50% of its sales destined for overseas markets. Assess Boeing’s currency risk. How can it cope with this risk?
Q.6 Distinguish between Eurobond and foreign bonds? What are the unique characteristics of Eurobond markets?
International Financial Management
Q.1 What do you mean by optimum capital structure? What factors affect cost of capital across nations?
Q.2 What is sub-prime lending? Explain the drivers of sub-prime lending? Explain briefly the different exchange rate regime that is prevalent today.
Q.3 What is covered interest rate arbitrage?
Assume spot rate of £ = $ 1.60
180 day forward rate £ = $ 1.56
180 day interest rate in U.K. = 4%
180 day U.S interest rate = 3%
Is covered interest arbitrage by U.S investor feasible?
Q.4 Explain double taxation avoidance agreement in detail
Q.5 Explain American depository receipt sponsored programme and unsponsored programme.
Q.6 Explain (a) Parallel Loans (b) Back – to- Back loans
Treasury Management
Q.1 Explain how organization structure of commercial bank treasury facilitates in handling various treasury operations. [10 Marks]
Q.2 Bring out in a table format the features of certificate of deposits and commercial papers. [10 marks]
Q.3 Critically evaluate participatory notes. Detail the regulatory aspects on it. [10 Marks]
Q.4 What is capital account convertibility? What are the implications on implementing CAC? [10 Marks]
Q.5 Detail domestic and international cash management system [10 Marks]
Q.6 Distinguish between CRR and SLR [10 Marks]

Treasury Management

Q.1 Explain any two major risks associated with banking organization. [10Marks]
Q.2 What is liquidity gap and detail the assumptions of it? [10 Marks]
Q.3 Explain loanable fund theory and liquidity preference theory [10 Marks]
Q.4 Explain various sources of interest rate risk [10 Marks]
Q.5 Detail Foreign exchange risk management and control procedure [10 Marks]
Q.6 Describe the three approaches to determine VaR [10 Marks]

Merchant Banking and Financial Services
Q.1 What do you understand by insider trading. What are the SEBI rules and regulations to prevent insider trading. [10]
Q.2 What is the provision of green shoe option and how is it used by companies to stabilize prices. [10]
Q.3 Discuss the proportionate allotment procedure followed by the lead banker to allot shares. [10]
Q.4 What are the advantages of leasing to a company. [10]
Q.5 Discuss Accounting standard 19 for lease based on operating lease. [10]
Q.6 Given the various types of mutual funds, take any two schemes and discuss the performance of the schemes. [10]
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Merchant Banking and Financial Services
Q.1 What are the provisions for prevention of fraudulent and unfair trade practices by SEBI regulations. [10]
Q.2 Discuss the method of price discovery using the book building process. [10]
Q.3 Discuss the role of a custodian of shares. [10]
Q.4 A company wishes to take machinery on lease. Study the lease options available to the company. [10]
Q.5 Give examples of various venture capital funds that are present and examples of some business ventures that have been successful with venture capital financing. [10]
Q.6 Mutual fund schemes can be identified by investment objective, List one scheme within each category. [10]

Insurance and Risk Management

.
Q.1 Explain chance of loss and degree of risk with examples [10 Marks]
Q.2 Explain in detail Malhotra Committee recommendations [10 Marks]
Q.3 What is the procedure to determine the value of various investments?[10 Marks]
Q.4 Discuss the guidelines for settlement of claims by Insurance company [10 Marks]
Q.5 What is facultative reinsurance and treaty reinsurance? [10 Marks]
Q.6 What is the role of information technology in promoting insurance products [10 Marks]

Insurance and Risk Management

Q.1 Explain risk avoidance, risk reduction and risk retention [10 Marks]
Q.2 What are the challenges faced by Indian Insurance Industry and what measures are taken to overcome them? [10 Marks]
Q.3 What is premium accounting and claim accounting? [10 Marks]
Q.4 What factors indicate that there is a good potential for growth of insurance services in rural markets? [10 Marks]
Q.5 Critically evaluate the role of agents in insurance industry [10 Marks]
Q.6 Explain product design and development process in Insurance Industry [10 Marks]

 

Compensation Benefits

Q1.     Describe flexible workforce in detail.
Q2.     Define internal equity and explain its importance.
Q3.     What is CTC? What are the components of CTC?
Q4.     What are the elements of compensation?
Q5.     Describe Mintzberg 5 P’s of strategy.
Q6.     Ms.Deepa Mehra is the VP-HR of Induslink Network. She is assigned the task of finding a new CEO for the company and fixing the compensation. What are the trends that she will have to look into before finalizing the compensation package for the CEO?

Compensation Benefits

Q1.     What are the major issues related to repatriation?
Q2.     How does compensation effect employee satisfaction?
Q3.     What are the factors to be taken into account to ensure an optimum compensation package for executives?
Q4.     How is employee benefit and labor market linked?
Q5.     What are the factors that have to be determined before preparing the salary structure?
Q6.     Mr.Senthil is the HR Manager of First Source Pvt. Ltd. He found that many of the employees have been doing the same work for a long period of time. He decided to enrich some of their jobs. List some of the strategies which can be used by Mr.Senthil to enrich jobs in organizations.

Performance Management and Appraisal
Q1.     State the components of a performance management system.
Q2.     What are the major errors that may occur during performance evaluation?
Q3.     Explain the traditional methods of performance appraisal in detail.
Q4.     Explain career planning in detail.
Q5.     Explain the ‘Plan-Do-Review-Revise’ cycle of performance management.
Q6.     Mr.Samuel D’Costa is the HR executive at Evergreen Solutions Pvt.Ltd. He found that the performance of the marketing team has been decreasing over the past four months. Suggest measures that he can take up to improve the team performance of the marketing team.

Performance Management and Appraisal

 

Q1.     What are the aims of performance management?
Q2.     What are the features of a Performance management framework?
Q3.     Explain the two psychosomatic approaches of the reward system within an organization.
Q4.     State the four essential components of 360 degree appraisal.
Q5.     What are the steps to be followed while building an ethical organizational culture?
Q6.     The HR department of a software company reviewed the performance of the employees. The HR Manager wants to provide feedback of the performance review to the employees. Describe the factors that have to be looked into while providing performance review feedback.

Talent Management

Q1.     What is the importance of talent management?
Q2.     What are the top 10 talent management challenges faced by an HR?
Q3.     What are the retention strategies adopted by organizations?
Q4.     List the key elements of talent management system.
Q5.     The talent selection consists of five selection processes. List them.
Q6.     State some of the practical steps that can be taken to improve the talent acquisition.

Talent Management
Q1.     Explain the methods adopted to control recruitment and hiring process.
Q2.     India as nation stands out for it entrepreneurial and well educated talent base. Justify.
Q3.     What are the steps to be followed while doing an assessment of an organization?
Q4.     What is the role of an HR in talent management?
Q5.     Describe the five stage approach for building a competency model.
Q6.     What are the four major keys involved in promotion of ethical behavior in the workplace?

Change Management
Q1.     How do change managers recognize resistance of employees to change?
Q2.     Explain any two Process based change models.
Q3.     Describe in detail transformation through McKinsey’s plan.
Q4.     What are the challenges that managers face in implementing successful change?
Q5.     What are the requirements for making organizational change?
Q6.     Explain the Greiner’s Growth Model of organizational growth in detail.

Change Management
Q1.     What are the five disciplines associated with the organizational learning?
Q2.     Describe the role of leaders in managing change.
Q3.     What are the skills and ability required for the role of change agent?
Q4.     Describe managing change during turbulent times and setting clear expectations.
Q5.     What are the three dimensions of organizational structure?
Q6.     Change management plays an important role in any organization, as the task of managing change is not an easy one. Justify.